HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. During a woman's first prenatal visit, the nurse reviews her health care record, noting a history of chickenpox as a child and syphilis as a teenager. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Obtain blood and urine for prenatal screens.
- B. Schedule prenatal visits to occur monthly.
- C. Explain common complications of pregnancy.
- D. Obtain baseline blood pressure and weight.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Obtaining blood and urine for prenatal screens is crucial in identifying any potential infections or conditions that may require monitoring throughout the pregnancy. Screening for infections such as syphilis is essential to ensure appropriate management and prevent adverse outcomes. This action helps in early detection and timely intervention, promoting the health and well-being of both the mother and the developing fetus. The other options, while important during prenatal care, are not as critical as obtaining prenatal screens to assess for any existing infections that could impact the pregnancy.
2. After breastfeeding for 10 minutes at each breast, a new mother calls the nurse to the postpartum room to help change the newborn's diaper. As the mother begins the diaper change, the newborn spits up the breast milk. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Wipe away the spit-up and assist the mother with the diaper change.
- B. Sit the newborn upright and burp by rubbing or patting the upper back.
- C. Place the newborn in a position with the head lower than the feet.
- D. Turn the newborn to the side and use bulb suction for the mouth and nares.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After a newborn spits up breast milk following feeding, the priority action for the nurse is to sit the newborn upright and burp by rubbing or patting the upper back. This position helps release trapped air and reduces the likelihood of further spit-up or aspiration. It is essential to address this first to prevent potential complications and ensure the newborn's comfort and safety.
3. A 6-year-old child is diagnosed with rheumatic fever and demonstrates associated chorea (sudden aimless movements of the arms and legs). Which information should the nurse provide to the parents?
- A. Muscle tension decreases with fine motor skill projects, so these activities should be encouraged.
- B. The chorea or movements are temporary and will eventually disappear.
- C. Permanent lifestyle changes are not needed to promote safety in the home.
- D. Consistent discipline is not directly related to controlling the movements.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chorea, or sudden aimless movements associated with rheumatic fever, is temporary in nature and will eventually disappear on its own. It is important for the nurse to reassure the parents that these movements are part of the condition and typically resolve over time without the need for permanent lifestyle changes or strict discipline. Providing accurate information and reassurance to the parents can help alleviate concerns and promote understanding of the condition's course. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because muscle tension, permanent lifestyle changes, and consistent discipline are not directly related to the resolution of chorea in rheumatic fever.
4. When assessing a child with HIV, which system should the nurse assess first?
- A. Assess the respiratory system.
- B. Assess the gastrointestinal system.
- C. Assess the cardiovascular system.
- D. Assess the neurological system.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When assessing a child with HIV, it is essential to prioritize assessing the respiratory system first. Children with HIV are more susceptible to respiratory infections and complications, such as pneumonia, due to their weakened immune system. Identifying any respiratory issues early on can help in prompt intervention and management, thus improving outcomes for the child.
5. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as
- A. a cephalhematoma, caused by birth trauma and may last up to 8 weeks.
- B. a subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage to prevent further complications.
- C. molding, caused by pressure during labor and will disappear within 2 to 3 days.
- D. a subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.
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