Nursing Elites

1. After each feeding, a 3-day-old newborn is spitting up large amounts of Enfamil® Newborn Formula, a nonfat cow's milk formula. The pediatric healthcare provider changes the neonate's formula to Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula, a soy protein isolate-based infant formula. What information should the LPN/LVN provide to the mother about the newly prescribed formula?

• A. The new formula is a coconut milk formula used with babies with impaired fat absorption.
• B. Enfamil® Formula is a demineralized whey formula that is needed with diarrhea.
• C. The new formula is a casein protein source that is low in phenylalanine.
• D. Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula is a soy-based formula that contains sucrose.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should inform the mother that Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula is a soy-based formula containing sucrose. This formula is suitable for infants with cow's milk protein allergy or intolerance, which may be the reason for the newborn spitting up large amounts of the previous cow's milk formula.

2. A client receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to augment early labor. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain each time the infusion rate is increased?

• A. Pain level
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Infusion site
• D. Contraction pattern

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxytocin to augment labor, the most crucial assessment for the nurse to obtain each time the infusion rate is increased is monitoring the contraction pattern. Increasing the infusion rate of oxytocin can lead to stronger and more frequent contractions, which can have implications for both the mother and the baby. Monitoring the contraction pattern helps ensure the safe administration of oxytocin and allows for timely interventions if needed.

3. In planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation experiencing preterm labor, what maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory syndrome?

• A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12mg deep IM.
• B. Butorphanol 1mg IV push q2h PRN pain.
• C. Ampicillin 1g IV push q8h.
• D. Terbutaline (Brethine) 0.25mg subcutaneously q15 minutes x3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The administration of Betamethasone (Celestone) is crucial in cases of preterm labor to promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Betamethasone helps enhance the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, improving their functionality and decreasing the likelihood of respiratory complications upon birth. Butorphanol is an analgesic and not indicated for preventing respiratory syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for infection prevention and treatment, not for fetal lung maturation. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to inhibit contractions, but it does not have a direct effect on fetal lung maturity.

4. After a full-term vaginal delivery, a postpartum client's white blood cell count is 15,000/mm3. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the differential, as the WBC count can be normal for this client.
• B. Assess the client's temperature, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider, as this finding may indicate infection.
• D. Assess the client's perineal area for signs of a perineal hematoma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In postpartum clients, a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 can be within normal limits due to physiological changes that occur after childbirth. Checking the differential count would provide a more detailed analysis of the specific types of white blood cells present, helping to differentiate between normal postpartum changes and potential infection. This action allows the nurse to gather more information before escalating the situation to the healthcare provider or initiating other assessments. Assessing vital signs and the perineal area are important aspects of postpartum care but may not be the priority in this scenario where the white blood cell count can be influenced by normal physiological changes.

5. At 39-weeks gestation, a multigravida is having a nonstress test (NST), the fetal heart rate (FHR) has remained non-reactive during 30 minutes of evaluation. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Initiate an intravenous infusion.
• B. Observe the FHR pattern for 30 more minutes.
• C. Schedule a biophysical profile.
• D. Place an acoustic stimulator on the abdomen.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases where the fetal heart rate remains non-reactive during an NST, using an acoustic stimulator on the abdomen can help stimulate fetal movement and promote heart rate reactivity. This intervention aims to assess the fetus's well-being and response to external stimuli, which can provide valuable information about fetal health status.

Similar Questions