Nursing Elites

1. In caring for a 4-year-old boy recently diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), which characteristic of the disease is most important for the nurse to focus on during the initial teaching?

• A. Lower legs become progressively weaker, causing a waddling, unsteady gait.
• B. Growth and development have been abnormal since birth.
• C. Muscular strength can be regained with physical exercise and therapy.
• D. Respiratory dysfunction and aspiration are prime concerns at this stage of the disease.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, a key characteristic is the progressive weakness in the lower legs, leading to a waddling, unsteady gait. The nurse should focus on teaching about this aspect as it helps in understanding the disease's progression and managing the symptoms effectively.

2. A child with leukemia is admitted for chemotherapy, and the nursing diagnosis 'altered nutrition, less than body requirements related to anorexia, nausea, and vomiting' is identified. Which intervention should the nurse include in this child’s plan of care?

• A. Allow the child to eat any food desired and tolerated.
• B. Provide small, frequent meals that are high in protein and calories.
• C. Offer the child preferred foods and avoid foods that are not well-tolerated.
• D. Consult with a dietitian to provide appropriate nutritional support.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In children with leukemia undergoing chemotherapy, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting are common issues leading to altered nutrition. Providing small, frequent meals that are high in protein and calories is essential to address these symptoms and meet the child's nutritional needs effectively. This approach helps in managing the side effects of treatment and supporting the child's nutritional requirements during this challenging time.

3. A community health nurse visits a family in which a 16-year-old unmarried daughter is pregnant with her first child and is at 32-weeks gestation. The client tells the nurse that she has been having intermittent back pain since the night before. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Ask the client’s mother to call an ambulance for transport to the hospital immediately.
• B. Determine what physical activities the client has performed for the past 24 hours.
• C. Teach the client how to perform pelvic rock exercises and observe for correct feedback.
• D. Ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge. Changes in vaginal discharge can indicate preterm labor, making it crucial to assess promptly. This information will help determine if the client needs immediate medical attention and appropriate interventions to prevent preterm birth and ensure the well-being of the mother and the baby. Option A is not the priority as back pain alone does not warrant immediate ambulance transport. Option B is less relevant in this context as the focus should be on immediate concerns related to pregnancy. Option C is not the priority as addressing back pain should come after ruling out urgent pregnancy-related issues.

4. A client is admitted to the postpartum unit and tells the nurse she had rheumatic fever as a child, which resulted in some 'heart damage'. The nurse knows that this client is at particular risk for developing heart failure during the immediate postpartum period. Based on the client's history, which nursing problem has the highest priority?

• A. Nausea and vomiting.
• B. Risk for infection.
• C. Sleep deprivation.
• D. Fluid volume excess.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fluid volume excess is a priority concern in this client, as heart damage from rheumatic fever can impair the heart's ability to manage increased blood volume postpartum, leading to potential heart failure. Monitoring and managing fluid volume status are crucial to prevent complications in this high-risk client. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority in this situation. Nausea and vomiting, risk for infection, and sleep deprivation are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's physiologic stability compared to the risk of heart failure due to fluid volume excess.

5. When preparing a class on newborn care for expectant parents, what content should be taught concerning the newborn infant born at term gestation?

• A. Milia are white marks caused by sebaceous glands and typically resolve within 2 to 4 weeks.
• B. Meconium is the first stool and is typically dark green or black in color.
• C. Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance mainly found in skin folds, providing a protective layer.
• D. Pseudostrabismus in newborns usually self-resolves without the need for intervention.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance that acts as a protective barrier on the skin of newborns, particularly present in skin folds. It helps to prevent dehydration and protect the delicate skin of the newborn from the amniotic fluid in utero. Educating expectant parents about the presence and function of vernix caseosa can help them understand the importance of its preservation during the immediate postnatal period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the protective function of vernix caseosa in newborns. Milia are small, white bumps on the skin due to blocked oil glands, meconium is the first stool of a newborn and is typically dark green or black in color, and pseudostrabismus refers to false appearance of misalignment of the eyes, which usually resolves on its own without intervention.

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