Nursing Elites

1. One hour after giving birth to an 8-pound infant, a client's lochia rubra has increased from small to large, and her fundus is boggy despite massage. The client's pulse is 84 beats/minute, and blood pressure is 156/96. The healthcare provider prescribes Methergine 0.2 mg IM × 1. What action should the healthcare provider take immediately?

• A. Give the medication as prescribed and monitor for efficacy.
• B. Encourage the client to breastfeed rather than bottle-feed.
• C. Have the client empty her bladder and massage the fundus.
• D. Call the healthcare provider to question the prescription.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare provider to take immediately is to call the healthcare provider to question the prescription. Methergine is contraindicated in clients with hypertension due to its potential to elevate blood pressure further. In this scenario, the client's blood pressure is already elevated at 156/96, making it unsafe to administer Methergine. The LPN/LVN should advocate for the client's safety by questioning the prescription to prevent potential harm.

2. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• B. Administer morphine sulfate.
• C. Start intravenous fluids.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a tetralogy of Fallot situation, placing the infant in a knee-chest position is the initial priority to help increase systemic vascular resistance, which reduces the right-to-left shunt and improves oxygenation. This position can assist in optimizing oxygen levels before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice B) is not the first-line treatment for tetralogy of Fallot crisis. Starting intravenous fluids (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (choice D) may not fully address the underlying issue of decreased systemic vascular resistance that leads to cyanosis in tetralogy of Fallot.

3. The nurse is caring for a 2-day old neonate who has not passed meconium and has a swollen abdomen. The healthcare provider reviews the flat plate X-ray of the abdomen and makes a tentative diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease. Which pathophysiological process is consistent with this neonate's clinical picture?

• A. The congenital absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells to large intestine produces no peristalsis.
• B. Pyloric obstruction causes reflux and projectile hematemesis.
• C. Partial imperforated anal opening limits passage of stools.
• D. Peristalsis moving against the intestinal obstruction causing hyperactivity of the bowel.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease is caused by the absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the large intestine, leading to a lack of peristalsis and obstruction.

4. A loading dose of terbutaline (Brethine) 250 mcg IV is prescribed for a client in preterm labor. Brethine 20 mg is added to 1,000 mL of D5W. How many milliliters of the solution should the nurse administer?

• A. 45
• B. 15 mL
• C. 4
• D. 13

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the amount of terbutaline to administer, first convert the dose to the same unit. 250 mcg = 0.25 mg. Next, set up a proportion: 20 mg is to 1000 mL as 0.25 mg is to X mL. Cross multiply and solve for X: 20 × X = 0.25 × 1000. X = (0.25 × 1000) / 20 = 12.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 13 mL of the solution. Choice A is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the accurate conversion and calculation. Choice C is incorrect as it is not the result of the correct proportion calculation.

5. When counseling a couple seeking information about conceiving, the LPN/LVN should know that ovulation usually occurs

• A. two weeks before menstruation.
• B. immediately after menstruation.
• C. immediately before menstruation.
• D. three weeks before menstruation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ovulation typically occurs about 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period. This timing allows for the released egg to travel down the fallopian tube where it may be fertilized by sperm, leading to conception. Understanding the timing of ovulation is crucial for couples trying to conceive to increase their chances of success.

Similar Questions