HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet
1. A primipara patient asks what is the best pet to have at home to share time with. Which pet is not recommended?
- A. Dog
- B. Cat
- C. Bird
- D. Fish
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Birds are not recommended as pets for a primipara patient due to potential health risks associated with bird droppings, feathers, and dander. These factors may pose a risk to the newborn's health and the mother's well-being. Additionally, some birds can be loud, which may disrupt the baby's sleep patterns. Therefore, it is advisable for primipara patients to consider pets like dogs, cats, or fish as they generally have lower associated risks in a household with a newborn. Dogs, cats, and fish are relatively safer options compared to birds for primipara patients due to their lower risk of transmitting infections, allergens, or causing disturbances that could affect the newborn or the mother.
2. A client in active labor is admitted with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most significant in planning this client's care?
- A. Patellar reflex 4+
- B. Blood pressure 158/80
- C. Four-hour urine output 240 ml
- D. Respirations 12/minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Patellar reflex 4+'. Hyperreflexia is a sign of severe preeclampsia and increases the risk of seizures, indicating the need for immediate intervention. Monitoring and addressing this finding are crucial in managing the client's condition and preventing complications.
3. A new mother calls the nurse stating that she wants to start feeding her 6-month-old child something besides breast milk, but is concerned that the infant is too young to start eating solid foods. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Advise the mother to wait at least another month before starting any solid foods.
- B. Instruct the mother to offer a few spoons of 2 or 3 pureed fruits at each meal.
- C. Reassure the mother that the infant is old enough to eat iron-fortified cereal.
- D. Encourage the mother to schedule a developmental assessment of the infant.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: At 6 months, infants are generally ready to start eating iron-fortified cereals as their iron stores begin to deplete. Introducing iron-fortified cereals at this age helps meet the infant's nutritional needs, particularly for iron, which becomes deficient as the infant's iron reserves diminish. It is a safe and appropriate first food to introduce to infants around 6 months of age, along with continued breastfeeding or formula feeding. Choice A is incorrect because waiting another month is not necessary if the infant is 6 months old. Choice B is incorrect as introducing pureed fruits as the first food may not provide the necessary iron that the infant needs at this stage. Choice D is also incorrect as scheduling a developmental assessment is not indicated solely based on the desire to start solid foods; it is more appropriate to reassure the mother about starting iron-fortified cereal.
4. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache 24 hours following the delivery of a normal newborn. Prior to the anesthesiologist's arrival on the unit, which action should the nurse perform?
- A. Apply an abdominal binder.
- B. Cleanse the spinal injection site.
- C. Insert an indwelling Foley catheter.
- D. Place procedure equipment at the bedside.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a postpartum client exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache, applying an abdominal binder is a priority action. The abdominal binder can help reduce the severity of a spinal headache by increasing intra-abdominal pressure, which may relieve pressure on the dural sac and alleviate symptoms. This intervention can be performed promptly by the nurse to provide immediate relief while waiting for further evaluation and management by the anesthesiologist. Cleansing the spinal injection site (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation as the headache is likely due to a dural puncture during epidural anesthesia rather than infection. Inserting an indwelling Foley catheter (Choice C) and placing procedure equipment at the bedside (Choice D) are not the appropriate actions to address a spinal headache and should not take precedence over applying an abdominal binder.
5. The nurse is planning care for a 4-year-old girl diagnosed with a developmental disability. What should be the primary focus of treatment for this child?
- A. Teach her social skills.
- B. Assist in preventing further disability.
- C. Ensure her participation in group activities.
- D. Help her achieve her maximum potential.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The primary focus of treatment for a child diagnosed with a developmental disability should be helping them achieve their maximum potential. This approach aims to optimize the child's physical, emotional, cognitive, and social abilities, focusing on enhancing their overall well-being and quality of life. By supporting the child in reaching their highest level of functioning, caregivers can promote independence, self-esteem, and personal growth, which are essential components of holistic care for individuals with developmental disabilities. Teaching social skills (choice A) is important but is just one aspect of the comprehensive care needed. Preventing further disability (choice B) may not always be entirely achievable, but maximizing potential is a more realistic goal. Ensuring participation in group activities (choice C) is valuable for social development, but the primary focus should be on overall potential and well-being.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access