Nursing Elites

1. What advice is most important for a client in the first trimester of pregnancy experiencing nausea?

• A. Practice relaxation techniques when nausea begins.
• B. Increase fluid intake to 3 quarts daily.
• C. Avoid alcohol, caffeine, and smoking.
• D. Eliminate snacks between meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the first trimester of pregnancy, it is crucial to advise pregnant clients to avoid alcohol, caffeine, and smoking. These substances can worsen nausea and harm fetal development. By eliminating these substances, the client can help alleviate nausea and create a healthier environment for the developing fetus. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in managing nausea during the first trimester. While relaxation techniques may help, avoiding harmful substances like alcohol, caffeine, and smoking takes precedence. Increasing fluid intake can be beneficial but not as crucial as avoiding harmful substances. Eliminating snacks between meals may not be necessary for all clients and is not directly related to managing nausea in the first trimester.

2. A child with leukemia is admitted for chemotherapy, and the nursing diagnosis 'altered nutrition, less than body requirements related to anorexia, nausea, and vomiting' is identified. Which intervention should the nurse include in this child’s plan of care?

• A. Allow the child to eat any food desired and tolerated.
• B. Provide small, frequent meals that are high in protein and calories.
• C. Offer the child preferred foods and avoid foods that are not well-tolerated.
• D. Consult with a dietitian to provide appropriate nutritional support.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In children with leukemia undergoing chemotherapy, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting are common issues leading to altered nutrition. Providing small, frequent meals that are high in protein and calories is essential to address these symptoms and meet the child's nutritional needs effectively. This approach helps in managing the side effects of treatment and supporting the child's nutritional requirements during this challenging time.

3. A 36-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery with severe abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. Her abdomen is rigid and tender to touch. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is 90 beats/minute, and the maternal heart rate is 120 beats/minute. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Alert the neonatal team and prepare for neonatal resuscitation
• B. Notify the healthcare provider from the client’s bedside
• C. Obtain written consent for an emergency cesarean section
• D. Draw a blood sample for stat hemoglobin and hematocrit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider from the client's bedside. The clinical presentation of severe abdominal pain, bright red vaginal bleeding, rigid and tender abdomen, along with fetal bradycardia (FHR 90 bpm) and maternal tachycardia (120 bpm) indicates an urgent need for medical intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for immediate assessment and decision-making to address the critical condition and ensure timely and appropriate management for both the mother and fetus.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?

• A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
• B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
• C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
• D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.

5. Which intervention is most helpful in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or 'afterpains'?

• A. Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen.
• B. Using a breast pump.
• C. Massaging the abdomen.
• D. Giving oxytocic medications.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen is the most helpful intervention in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or 'afterpains.' This position provides counter-pressure and support to the uterus, helping to alleviate discomfort and promote uterine involution. Choice B, using a breast pump, is not effective in relieving afterpains as it focuses on milk expression. Massaging the abdomen (Choice C) may help with discomfort but does not provide the same level of support as lying prone with a pillow. Giving oxytocic medications (Choice D) is not typically the first-line intervention for afterpains unless there are specific medical indications.

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