Nursing Elites

1. What advice is most important for a client in the first trimester of pregnancy experiencing nausea?

• A. Practice relaxation techniques when nausea begins.
• B. Increase fluid intake to 3 quarts daily.
• C. Avoid alcohol, caffeine, and smoking.
• D. Eliminate snacks between meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the first trimester of pregnancy, it is crucial to advise pregnant clients to avoid alcohol, caffeine, and smoking. These substances can worsen nausea and harm fetal development. By eliminating these substances, the client can help alleviate nausea and create a healthier environment for the developing fetus. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in managing nausea during the first trimester. While relaxation techniques may help, avoiding harmful substances like alcohol, caffeine, and smoking takes precedence. Increasing fluid intake can be beneficial but not as crucial as avoiding harmful substances. Eliminating snacks between meals may not be necessary for all clients and is not directly related to managing nausea in the first trimester.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a 38-week gestation newborn infant immediately following a vaginal birth. Which assessment finding best indicates that the infant is transitioning well to extrauterine life?

• A. Positive Babinski reflex.
• B. Flexion of all four extremities.
• C. Heart rate of 220 beats/min.
• D. Cries vigorously when stimulated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A vigorous cry upon stimulation indicates that the newborn has good respiratory effort and is transitioning well to life outside the womb. It shows that the infant's airways are clear, and they are able to establish effective breathing, a crucial aspect of transitioning successfully to extrauterine life. Choices A, B, and C are not the best indicators of successful transition to extrauterine life. The Babinski reflex and flexion of extremities are normal neonatal reflexes and do not specifically indicate successful transition. A heart rate of 220 beats/min is abnormally high for a newborn and could indicate distress rather than a smooth transition.

3. A postpartum client who is Rh-negative refuses to receive RhoGAM after the delivery of an infant who is Rh-positive. Which information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. RhoGAM prevents maternal antibody formation for future Rh-positive babies.
• B. RhoGAM is not necessary unless all of her pregnancies are Rh-positive.
• C. The Rh-positive factor from the fetus threatens her blood cells.
• D. The mother should receive RhoGAM when the baby is Rh-negative.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative individuals after exposure to Rh-positive blood to prevent the development of antibodies that could harm future Rh-positive babies during subsequent pregnancies. By refusing RhoGAM after the delivery of an Rh-positive infant, the mother risks developing these antibodies, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future pregnancies with Rh-positive babies. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to explain to the client that receiving RhoGAM prevents the formation of maternal antibodies against Rh-positive blood, safeguarding the health of future babies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because RhoGAM is necessary after exposure to Rh-positive blood, regardless of the Rh status of future pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as it does not accurately convey the purpose of RhoGAM administration. Choice D is incorrect because RhoGAM is specifically given after exposure to Rh-positive blood, not when the baby is Rh-negative.

4. A client at 32 weeks gestation is hospitalized with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and magnesium sulfate is prescribed to control the symptoms. Which assessment finding indicates the therapeutic drug level has been achieved?

• A. 4+ reflexes
• B. Urinary output of 50 ml per hour
• C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16
• D. A decreased body temperature

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16 indicates that magnesium sulfate is effectively reducing central nervous system irritability, a desired therapeutic effect. This decrease in respiratory rate signifies that the drug has reached a therapeutic level to control symptoms of severe pregnancy-induced hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because 4+ reflexes, urinary output, and body temperature are not direct indicators of achieving a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate for controlling PIH symptoms.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes Amoxicillin 500mg PO every 8hrs for a child who weighs 22 pounds. The available suspension is labeled Amoxicillin Suspension 250mg/5ml. The recommended maximum dose is 50mg/kg/24hr. How many mL should the nurse administer in a single dose based on the child’s weight?

• A. 10mL
• B. 15mL
• C. 7.5mL
• D. 5mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dose for the child weighing 22 pounds, first convert the weight to kg: 22 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 10 kg. The maximum dose based on weight would be 10 kg × 50 mg/kg/24hr = 500 mg/24hr. Since the medication is prescribed every 8 hours, the dose for each administration would be 500 mg ÷ 3 doses = 166.67 mg. As the available suspension is 250mg/5ml, the nurse should administer 166.67 mg ÷ 250 mg/mL = 0.67 mL per dose. However, since it's not practical to administer a fraction of a milliliter, the nurse should round up to the nearest appropriate dose, which is 10mL.

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