Nursing Elites

1. What advice is most important for a client in the first trimester of pregnancy experiencing nausea?

• A. Practice relaxation techniques when nausea begins.
• B. Increase fluid intake to 3 quarts daily.
• C. Avoid alcohol, caffeine, and smoking.
• D. Eliminate snacks between meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the first trimester of pregnancy, it is crucial to advise pregnant clients to avoid alcohol, caffeine, and smoking. These substances can worsen nausea and harm fetal development. By eliminating these substances, the client can help alleviate nausea and create a healthier environment for the developing fetus. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in managing nausea during the first trimester. While relaxation techniques may help, avoiding harmful substances like alcohol, caffeine, and smoking takes precedence. Increasing fluid intake can be beneficial but not as crucial as avoiding harmful substances. Eliminating snacks between meals may not be necessary for all clients and is not directly related to managing nausea in the first trimester.

2. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is complaining of severe pain and a feeling of pressure in her perineum. Her fundus is firm, and she has a moderate lochial flow. On inspection, the nurse finds that a perineal hematoma is beginning to form. Which assessment finding should the nurse obtain first?

• A. Urinary output and fluid intake.
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• C. Abdominal contour and bowel sounds.
• D. Heart rate and blood pressure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a postpartum client with a perineal hematoma, assessing heart rate and blood pressure is crucial as it can help determine the client's circulatory status. A perineal hematoma has the potential to cause significant blood loss leading to hypovolemia. Monitoring vital signs like heart rate and blood pressure can provide immediate information on the client's hemodynamic stability and guide further interventions if needed.

3. Immediately after birth, a newborn infant is suctioned, dried, and placed under a radiant warmer. The infant has spontaneous respirations, and the nurse assesses an apical heart rate of 80 beats/minute and respirations of 20 breaths/minute. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Initiate positive pressure ventilation.
• B. Intervene after the one-minute Apgar assessment.
• C. Initiate CPR on the infant.
• D. Assess the infant's blood glucose level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate below 100 bpm in a newborn indicates bradycardia and requires intervention. Positive pressure ventilation should be initiated to improve oxygenation and help increase the infant's heart rate. This intervention is crucial to support the newborn's transition to extrauterine life and prevent further complications.

4. The LPN/LVN is providing discharge teaching for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The nurse explains to the client that her vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. The client asks, 'What if I start having red bleeding after it changes?' What should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Go to bed and assume a knee-chest position.
• C. Massage the uterus and go to the emergency room.
• D. Do not worry as this is a normal occurrence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client experiences a return to red bleeding after transitioning to pink and white, it may indicate possible complications like hemorrhage or retained placental fragments. Instructing the client to reduce activity level and promptly notify the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and management of these potentially serious postpartum complications. Choice B is incorrect as assuming a knee-chest position is not the appropriate action for red bleeding postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the uterus without professional assessment can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect because red bleeding after transitioning is not normal and should be evaluated promptly.

5. A 16-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She is not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in the client's nursing care plan?

• A. Assess temperature every hour.
• B. Allow liberal family visitation.
• C. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours.
• D. Keep an airway at the bedside.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the case of eclampsia, the priority intervention is to keep an airway at the bedside. Eclampsia is associated with a high risk of convulsions, and having an airway readily available is crucial for prompt intervention in the event of seizures. Assessing temperature, allowing family visitation, and monitoring vital signs are important aspects of care but ensuring airway patency takes precedence in this situation to manage potential complications and ensure the client's safety.

Similar Questions