Nursing Elites

1. Assessment findings of a 4-hour-old newborn include: axillary temperature of 96.8°F (35.8°C), heart rate of 150 beats/minute with a soft murmur, irregular respiratory rate at 64 breaths/minute, jitteriness, hypotonia, and weak cry. Based on these findings, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Swaddle the infant in a warm blanket.
• B. Obtain a heel stick blood glucose level.
• C. Place a pulse oximeter on the heel.
• D. Document the findings in the record.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The assessment findings in the newborn, such as jitteriness, weak cry, and hypotonia, are indicative of potential hypoglycemia. To confirm this suspicion, the nurse should obtain a heel stick blood glucose level, which is the most appropriate action in this situation. Checking the blood glucose level will provide crucial information to determine the newborn's glucose status and guide further management if hypoglycemia is confirmed. Swaddling the infant in a warm blanket does not address the underlying issue of potential hypoglycemia and may not effectively raise the blood glucose level. Placing a pulse oximeter on the heel is not indicated for assessing hypoglycemia. Documenting the findings in the record is important but does not address the immediate concern of assessing and managing potential hypoglycemia.

2. A 6-year-old with heart failure (HF) gained 2 pounds in the last 24 hours. Which intervention is more important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Graph the daily weight for the past week.
• B. Decrease IV flow rate.
• C. Assess bilateral lung sounds.
• D. Restrict intake of oral fluids.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing bilateral lung sounds is crucial in this scenario as it can provide essential information about potential fluid accumulation in the lungs, indicating worsening heart failure. This assessment can guide immediate interventions to prevent further deterioration in the patient's condition.

3. A community health nurse visits a family in which a 16-year-old unmarried daughter is pregnant with her first child and is at 32-weeks gestation. The client tells the nurse that she has been having intermittent back pain since the night before. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Ask the client’s mother to call an ambulance for transport to the hospital immediately.
• B. Determine what physical activities the client has performed for the past 24 hours.
• C. Teach the client how to perform pelvic rock exercises and observe for correct feedback.
• D. Ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge. Changes in vaginal discharge can indicate preterm labor, making it crucial to assess promptly. This information will help determine if the client needs immediate medical attention and appropriate interventions to prevent preterm birth and ensure the well-being of the mother and the baby. Option A is not the priority as back pain alone does not warrant immediate ambulance transport. Option B is less relevant in this context as the focus should be on immediate concerns related to pregnancy. Option C is not the priority as addressing back pain should come after ruling out urgent pregnancy-related issues.

4. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• B. Administer morphine sulfate.
• C. Start intravenous fluids.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a tetralogy of Fallot situation, placing the infant in a knee-chest position is the initial priority to help increase systemic vascular resistance, which reduces the right-to-left shunt and improves oxygenation. This position can assist in optimizing oxygen levels before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice B) is not the first-line treatment for tetralogy of Fallot crisis. Starting intravenous fluids (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (choice D) may not fully address the underlying issue of decreased systemic vascular resistance that leads to cyanosis in tetralogy of Fallot.

5. A 5-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit with fever and pain secondary to a sickle cell crisis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a culture of any sputum or wound drainage
• B. Initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr
• C. Administer a loading dose of penicillin IM
• D. Administer the initial dose of folic acid PO

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a child with a sickle cell crisis, the priority intervention is to initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr to manage dehydration and help alleviate pain. This intervention helps improve hydration status and supports the circulation of sickled red blood cells, reducing the risk of vaso-occlusive episodes and associated pain. Obtaining a culture of any sputum or wound drainage (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering a loading dose of penicillin IM (Choice C) is important but not the first intervention. Administering the initial dose of folic acid PO (Choice D) is beneficial but does not address the immediate need for hydration in a sickle cell crisis.

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