Nursing Elites

1. A child who received multiple blood transfusions after correction of a congenital heart defect is demonstrating muscular irritability and oozing blood from the surgical incision. Which serum value is most important for the nurse to obtain before reporting to the healthcare provider?

• A. CO2 combining power
• B. Calcium
• C. Sodium
• D. Chloride

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Calcium. In this scenario, the child is displaying symptoms of muscular irritability and oozing blood, which are indicative of hypocalcemia. Calcium levels are crucial to monitor after multiple blood transfusions to prevent complications such as hypocalcemia, which can lead to these symptoms. Therefore, obtaining a serum calcium value is essential for the nurse to assess and address the child's condition effectively. CO2 combining power, Sodium, and Chloride levels are not directly associated with the symptoms described and are not the priority in this situation.

2. A child with ADHD needs help with homework. What should the nurse encourage the parents to do?

• A. Encourage the parents to help the child with homework.
• B. Do the homework for the child.
• C. Set a regular homework schedule.
• D. Provide a quiet environment for homework.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging parents to help the child with homework is the most appropriate course of action. By assisting the child, parents can provide necessary support and guidance without taking over the task entirely. This approach fosters independence and helps the child develop academic skills. Option B, doing the homework for the child, is counterproductive as it does not empower the child to learn and grow independently. Option C, setting a regular homework schedule, is important but does not address the immediate need for assistance. Option D, providing a quiet environment for homework, is helpful but does not directly involve parents in supporting the child's academic progress.

3. A 5-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit with fever and pain secondary to a sickle cell crisis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a culture of any sputum or wound drainage
• B. Initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr
• C. Administer a loading dose of penicillin IM
• D. Administer the initial dose of folic acid PO

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a child with a sickle cell crisis, the priority intervention is to initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr to manage dehydration and help alleviate pain. This intervention helps improve hydration status and supports the circulation of sickled red blood cells, reducing the risk of vaso-occlusive episodes and associated pain. Obtaining a culture of any sputum or wound drainage (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering a loading dose of penicillin IM (Choice C) is important but not the first intervention. Administering the initial dose of folic acid PO (Choice D) is beneficial but does not address the immediate need for hydration in a sickle cell crisis.

4. In planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation experiencing preterm labor, what maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory syndrome?

• A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12mg deep IM.
• B. Butorphanol 1mg IV push q2h PRN pain.
• C. Ampicillin 1g IV push q8h.
• D. Terbutaline (Brethine) 0.25mg subcutaneously q15 minutes x3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The administration of Betamethasone (Celestone) is crucial in cases of preterm labor to promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Betamethasone helps enhance the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, improving their functionality and decreasing the likelihood of respiratory complications upon birth. Butorphanol is an analgesic and not indicated for preventing respiratory syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for infection prevention and treatment, not for fetal lung maturation. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to inhibit contractions, but it does not have a direct effect on fetal lung maturity.

5. During a routine prenatal health assessment for a client in her third trimester, the client reports that she had fluid leakage on her way to the appointment. Which technique should the nurse implement to evaluate the leakage?

• A. Insert a straight urinary catheter to drain the bladder.
• B. Scan the bladder for urinary retention.
• C. Palpate the suprapubic area for fetal head position.
• D. Test the fluid with a nitrazine strip.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Testing the fluid with a nitrazine strip is the appropriate technique to differentiate between amniotic fluid and urine. This test helps in determining if the fluid leakage is amniotic fluid, which is crucial for guiding further management and ensuring appropriate care for the client during the third trimester of pregnancy. Inserting a straight urinary catheter to drain the bladder (Choice A) is unnecessary and invasive in this scenario as the concern is fluid leakage, not urinary retention. Scanning the bladder for urinary retention (Choice B) is also not indicated since the client reported fluid leakage, not retention. Palpating the suprapubic area for fetal head position (Choice C) is unrelated to assessing fluid leakage and not the appropriate technique in this situation.

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