Nursing Elites

1. A client at 28 weeks gestation calls the antepartum clinic and reports experiencing a small amount of bright red vaginal bleeding without uterine contractions or abdominal pain. What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide?

• A. Come to the clinic today for an ultrasound.
• B. Go immediately to the emergency room.
• C. Lie on your left side for about one hour and see if the bleeding stops.
• D. Bring a urine specimen to the lab tomorrow to determine if you have a urinary tract infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bright red vaginal bleeding without pain could indicate placental issues such as previa. An ultrasound is necessary to evaluate the cause. It is important to rule out potential serious conditions like placental previa, which can lead to further complications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, prompt evaluation through an ultrasound at the clinic is essential for appropriate management and ensuring the well-being of the client and her baby.

2. After each feeding, a 3-day-old newborn is spitting up large amounts of Enfamil® Newborn Formula, a nonfat cow's milk formula. The pediatric healthcare provider changes the neonate's formula to Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula, a soy protein isolate-based infant formula. What information should the LPN/LVN provide to the mother about the newly prescribed formula?

• A. The new formula is a coconut milk formula used with babies with impaired fat absorption.
• B. Enfamil® Formula is a demineralized whey formula that is needed with diarrhea.
• C. The new formula is a casein protein source that is low in phenylalanine.
• D. Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula is a soy-based formula that contains sucrose.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should inform the mother that Similac® Soy Isomil® Formula is a soy-based formula containing sucrose. This formula is suitable for infants with cow's milk protein allergy or intolerance, which may be the reason for the newborn spitting up large amounts of the previous cow's milk formula.

3. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as

• A. a cephalhematoma, caused by birth trauma and may last up to 8 weeks.
• B. a subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage to prevent further complications.
• C. molding, caused by pressure during labor and will disappear within 2 to 3 days.
• D. a subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.

4. The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old child with Reye’s syndrome. Which goal of treatment most clearly relates to caring for this child?

• A. Reduce cerebral edema and lower intracranial pressure
• B. Avert hypotension and septic shock
• C. Prevent cardiac arrhythmias and heart failure
• D. Promote kidney perfusion and normal blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Reducing cerebral edema and lowering intracranial pressure is the primary goal of treatment for Reye’s syndrome.

5. In which chromosome pattern is Duchenne disease inherited?

• A. Autosomal dominant
• B. Autosomal recessive
• C. X-linked recessive
• D. Mitochondrial

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Duchenne disease is caused by a mutation in the DMD gene located on the X chromosome, leading to an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. Males are typically affected by this disorder as they have only one X chromosome, while females are carriers with one normal and one affected X chromosome.

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