Nursing Elites

1. A father watching the admission of his newborn to the nursery notices that eye ointment is placed in the infant's eyes. He asks what is the purpose of the ointment. The nurse would be correct in stating that the purpose of the ointment is:

• A. Prevent eye infection.
• B. Dilate the pupil so the red reflex can be visualized.
• C. Clear the infant's vision.
• D. Prevent herpes infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent eye infection. Eye ointment, usually containing erythromycin, is applied to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis, which can be caused by bacteria present in the birth canal. It is not used to dilate the pupil, clear the infant's vision, or prevent herpes infection.

2. In planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation experiencing preterm labor, what maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory syndrome?

• A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12mg deep IM.
• B. Butorphanol 1mg IV push q2h PRN pain.
• C. Ampicillin 1g IV push q8h.
• D. Terbutaline (Brethine) 0.25mg subcutaneously q15 minutes x3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The administration of Betamethasone (Celestone) is crucial in cases of preterm labor to promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Betamethasone helps enhance the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, improving their functionality and decreasing the likelihood of respiratory complications upon birth. Butorphanol is an analgesic and not indicated for preventing respiratory syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for infection prevention and treatment, not for fetal lung maturation. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to inhibit contractions, but it does not have a direct effect on fetal lung maturity.

3. A male infant with a 2-day history of fever and diarrhea is brought to the clinic by his mother, who tells the nurse that the child refuses to drink anything. The nurse determines that the child has a weak cry with no tears. Which intervention is most important to implement?

• A. Provide a bottle of electrolyte solution.
• B. Infuse normal saline intravenously.
• C. Administer an antipyretic rectally.
• D. Apply an external cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Infusing normal saline intravenously is crucial to treat dehydration caused by fever and diarrhea. In this scenario, the infant's weak cry with no tears indicates severe dehydration, necessitating rapid fluid replacement via intravenous normal saline to restore fluid balance and prevent complications.

4. A community health nurse visits a family in which a 16-year-old unmarried daughter is pregnant with her first child and is at 32-weeks gestation. The client tells the nurse that she has been having intermittent back pain since the night before. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Ask the client’s mother to call an ambulance for transport to the hospital immediately.
• B. Determine what physical activities the client has performed for the past 24 hours.
• C. Teach the client how to perform pelvic rock exercises and observe for correct feedback.
• D. Ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge. Changes in vaginal discharge can indicate preterm labor, making it crucial to assess promptly. This information will help determine if the client needs immediate medical attention and appropriate interventions to prevent preterm birth and ensure the well-being of the mother and the baby. Option A is not the priority as back pain alone does not warrant immediate ambulance transport. Option B is less relevant in this context as the focus should be on immediate concerns related to pregnancy. Option C is not the priority as addressing back pain should come after ruling out urgent pregnancy-related issues.

5. After a full-term vaginal delivery, a postpartum client's white blood cell count is 15,000/mm3. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the differential, as the WBC count can be normal for this client.
• B. Assess the client's temperature, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider, as this finding may indicate infection.
• D. Assess the client's perineal area for signs of a perineal hematoma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In postpartum clients, a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 can be within normal limits due to physiological changes that occur after childbirth. Checking the differential count would provide a more detailed analysis of the specific types of white blood cells present, helping to differentiate between normal postpartum changes and potential infection. This action allows the nurse to gather more information before escalating the situation to the healthcare provider or initiating other assessments. Assessing vital signs and the perineal area are important aspects of postpartum care but may not be the priority in this scenario where the white blood cell count can be influenced by normal physiological changes.

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