HESI RN
Maternity HESI Quizlet
1. A father watching the admission of his newborn to the nursery notices that eye ointment is placed in the infant's eyes. He asks what is the purpose of the ointment. The nurse would be correct in stating that the purpose of the ointment is:
- A. Prevent eye infection.
- B. Dilate the pupil so the red reflex can be visualized.
- C. Clear the infant's vision.
- D. Prevent herpes infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent eye infection. Eye ointment, usually containing erythromycin, is applied to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis, which can be caused by bacteria present in the birth canal. It is not used to dilate the pupil, clear the infant's vision, or prevent herpes infection.
2. When assessing a client who is at 12-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN recommends that she and her husband consider attending childbirth preparation classes. When is the best time for the couple to attend these classes?
- A. At 16 weeks gestation.
- B. At 20 weeks gestation.
- C. At 24 weeks gestation.
- D. At 30 weeks gestation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best time for the couple to attend childbirth preparation classes is around 30 weeks gestation, which is during the third trimester. Attending classes at this time allows the couple to learn essential information and skills as labor and delivery are approaching, maximizing the benefit of the classes. Option A is too early in the second trimester, and the couple might forget important details by the time labor approaches. Option B is also early in the second trimester, and attending later allows for better preparation. Option C is still in the second trimester, and waiting until the third trimester provides more practical knowledge closer to delivery.
3. A client with no prenatal care arrives at the labor unit screaming, 'The baby is coming!' The nurse performs a vaginal examination that reveals the cervix is 3 centimeters dilated and 75% effaced. What additional information is most important for the LPN/LVN to obtain?
- A. Gravidity and parity.
- B. Time and amount of last oral intake.
- C. Date of last normal menstrual period.
- D. Frequency and intensity of contractions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining the date of the last normal menstrual period is crucial in estimating the gestational age of the fetus. This information helps in determining the progression of labor and the management of delivery. It also assists healthcare providers in assessing the overall health of the mother and the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are important in labor assessment, but in this scenario, the most crucial information needed is the date of the last normal menstrual period to estimate the gestational age.
4. A full-term infant is transferred to the nursery from labor and delivery. Which information is most important for the LPN/LVN to receive when planning immediate care for the newborn?
- A. Length of labor and method of delivery.
- B. Infant's condition at birth and treatment received.
- C. Feeding method chosen by the parents.
- D. History of drugs given to the mother during labor.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a full-term infant is transferred to the nursery, the most crucial information for the LPN/LVN to receive for immediate care planning is the infant's condition at birth and any treatments received. This data helps in determining the initial care needs and monitoring requirements for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical as the infant's condition at birth and treatment received. The length of labor and method of delivery may provide background information but may not be as essential for immediate care planning. The feeding method chosen by the parents and the history of drugs given to the mother during labor are important but do not take precedence over knowing the infant's condition and treatment received.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a 2-hour-old infant born by cesarean delivery at 39-weeks gestation. Which assessment finding should receive the highest priority when planning the infant’s care?
- A. Blood pressure 76/42 mmHg.
- B. Faint heart murmur.
- C. Respiratory rate of 76 breaths/minute.
- D. Blood glucose 45 mg/dl.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A high respiratory rate in a newborn is concerning as it may indicate respiratory distress, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Monitoring and addressing respiratory issues take precedence over other parameters in the initial assessment of a newborn. The blood pressure, heart murmur, and blood glucose levels are important but not as urgent as addressing potential respiratory distress in a newborn.
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