HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. A new mother asks the LPN/LVN, 'How do I know that my daughter is getting enough breast milk?' Which explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. Weigh the baby daily, and if she is gaining weight, she is eating enough.
- B. Your milk is sufficient if the baby is voiding pale straw-colored urine 6 to 10 times a day.
- C. Offer the baby extra bottle milk after her feeding, and see if she is still hungry.
- D. If you're concerned, you might consider bottle feeding so that you can monitor her intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Adequate voiding is a sign that the baby is receiving enough milk. Pale straw-colored urine 6 to 10 times a day indicates proper hydration and nutrition. This is a reliable indicator of adequate breast milk intake for the infant. Choice A is incorrect because weight gain alone may not always indicate sufficient milk intake. Choice C is incorrect because supplementing with bottle milk can interfere with establishing breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests switching to bottle feeding, which is not necessary if the baby is latching and voiding well.
2. The nurse is caring for a one-year-old child following surgical correction of hypospadias. Which nursing action has the highest priority?
- A. Monitor urinary output
- B. Auscultate bowel sounds
- C. Observe appearance of stool
- D. Record percent of diet consumed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In caring for a one-year-old child post hypospadias surgery, the highest priority action is to monitor urinary output. This is crucial to assess kidney function and ensure there are no complications following the surgical procedure. Auscultating bowel sounds, observing stool appearance, and recording diet consumption are important assessments too, but in this case, monitoring urinary output takes precedence due to the nature of the surgery and potential complications related to urinary function.
3. A community health nurse visits a family in which a 16-year-old unmarried daughter is pregnant with her first child and is at 32-weeks gestation. The client tells the nurse that she has been having intermittent back pain since the night before. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Ask the client’s mother to call an ambulance for transport to the hospital immediately.
- B. Determine what physical activities the client has performed for the past 24 hours.
- C. Teach the client how to perform pelvic rock exercises and observe for correct feedback.
- D. Ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge. Changes in vaginal discharge can indicate preterm labor, making it crucial to assess promptly. This information will help determine if the client needs immediate medical attention and appropriate interventions to prevent preterm birth and ensure the well-being of the mother and the baby. Option A is not the priority as back pain alone does not warrant immediate ambulance transport. Option B is less relevant in this context as the focus should be on immediate concerns related to pregnancy. Option C is not the priority as addressing back pain should come after ruling out urgent pregnancy-related issues.
4. The healthcare provider is reviewing the serum laboratory findings for a 5-day-old infant with congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Which laboratory result should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Bilirubin of 1.5 mg/dl.
- B. Glucose of 80 mg/dl.
- C. Potassium of 4.5 mEq/L.
- D. Sodium of 119 mEq/L.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Low sodium levels in congenital adrenal hyperplasia can indicate salt-wasting crisis, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate medical attention. Monitoring sodium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as dehydration and shock in these patients.
5. Twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered, a laboring client's blood pressure drops from 120/80 to 90/60. What action should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately.
- B. Continue to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes.
- C. Place the woman in a lateral position.
- D. Turn off the continuous epidural.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placing the woman in a lateral position is the appropriate action to improve venous return and cardiac output, helping to stabilize the blood pressure. This position can alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, reducing the risk of hypotension associated with epidural anesthesia. Turning off the continuous epidural would not be the initial action as it may not be necessary and could lead to inadequate pain relief for the client. Notifying the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately is premature and should be done after attempting non-invasive interventions. Continuing to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes is important, but placing the woman in a lateral position should be the first intervention to address the hypotension.
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