Nursing Elites

1. A client in active labor is admitted with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most significant in planning this client's care?

• A. Patellar reflex 4+
• B. Blood pressure 158/80
• C. Four-hour urine output 240 ml
• D. Respirations 12/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Patellar reflex 4+'. Hyperreflexia is a sign of severe preeclampsia and increases the risk of seizures, indicating the need for immediate intervention. Monitoring and addressing this finding are crucial in managing the client's condition and preventing complications.

2. A client who is receiving oxytocin to augment early labor begins to experience tachysystolic tetanic contractions with variable fetal heart decelerations. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Turn off the oxytocin infusion.
• B. Reposition the fetal monitor transducers.
• C. Decrease the rate of the oxytocin infusion.
• D. Alert the charge nurse about the patient's condition.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences tachysystolic tetanic contractions with variable fetal heart decelerations, indicating uterine hyperstimulation, the priority action is to turn off the oxytocin infusion. This step aims to reduce uterine activity, which can compromise fetal oxygenation and lead to adverse outcomes.

3. During a newborn assessment, which symptom would indicate respiratory distress if present in a newborn?

• A. Flaring of the nares.
• B. Shallow and irregular respirations.
• C. Respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute.
• D. Abdominal breathing with synchronous chest movement.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flaring of the nares is a classic sign of respiratory distress in newborns. It indicates that the newborn is working hard to breathe, and immediate attention should be given to assess and address the respiratory status of the infant.

4. Upon admission to the prenatal clinic, a 23-year-old woman informs the nurse that her last menstrual period began on February 15, and that previously her periods were regular. Her pregnancy test is positive. What is this client's expected date of delivery (EDD)?

• A. November 22.
• B. November 8.
• C. December 22.
• D. October 22.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the expected date of delivery (EDD) using Nägele's rule, add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP) which is February 15, resulting in February 22. Then, subtract 3 months from February 22, which gives November 22 as the estimated due date.

5. An infant delivered vaginally by an HIV-positive mother is admitted to the newborn nursery. What intervention should the healthcare provider perform first?

• A. Bathe the infant with an antimicrobial soap.
• B. Measure the head and chest circumference.
• C. Obtain the infant's footprints.
• D. Administer vitamin K (AquaMEPHYTON).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial intervention should be to bathe the infant with an antimicrobial soap to reduce the risk of HIV transmission from maternal fluids. This immediate action helps minimize potential exposure to the virus and promotes infection control practices in the care of infants born to HIV-positive mothers. Choice B, measuring head and chest circumference, is important for assessing growth and development but not the priority in this scenario. Choice C, obtaining footprints, is a routine procedure but not a priority over infection control measures. Choice D, administering vitamin K, is important for clotting factors but does not address the immediate risk of HIV transmission.

Similar Questions