HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider prescribes oxytocin 2 milliunits/minute to induce labor for a client at 41-weeks gestation. The nurse initiates an infusion of Ringer’s Lactate solution 1000 mL with oxytocin 10 units. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?
- A. 12 mL/hour
- B. 2 mL/hour
- C. 22 mL/hour
- D. 42 mL/hour
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate in mL/hour, first, convert 2 milliunits/minute to milliunits/hour by multiplying by 60 to get 120 milliunits/hour. Then, calculate the mL/hour using the formula: milliunits/hour (120) × total volume (1000 mL) ÷ units in IV solution (10 units) = 1200 mL/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 12 mL/hour to provide the prescribed dose of oxytocin. Choice B is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C is incorrect as it is not derived from the correct formula. Choice D is incorrect as it is not the result of the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
2. Twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered, a laboring client's blood pressure drops from 120/80 to 90/60. What action should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately.
- B. Continue to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes.
- C. Place the woman in a lateral position.
- D. Turn off the continuous epidural.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Placing the woman in a lateral position is the appropriate action to improve venous return and cardiac output, helping to stabilize the blood pressure. This position can alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, reducing the risk of hypotension associated with epidural anesthesia. Turning off the continuous epidural would not be the initial action as it may not be necessary and could lead to inadequate pain relief for the client. Notifying the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately is premature and should be done after attempting non-invasive interventions. Continuing to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes is important, but placing the woman in a lateral position should be the first intervention to address the hypotension.
3. A postpartum client who is Rh-negative refuses to receive RhoGAM after the delivery of an infant who is Rh-positive. Which information should the nurse provide this client?
- A. RhoGAM prevents maternal antibody formation for future Rh-positive babies.
- B. RhoGAM is not necessary unless all of her pregnancies are Rh-positive.
- C. The Rh-positive factor from the fetus threatens her blood cells.
- D. The mother should receive RhoGAM when the baby is Rh-negative.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative individuals after exposure to Rh-positive blood to prevent the development of antibodies that could harm future Rh-positive babies during subsequent pregnancies. By refusing RhoGAM after the delivery of an Rh-positive infant, the mother risks developing these antibodies, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future pregnancies with Rh-positive babies. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to explain to the client that receiving RhoGAM prevents the formation of maternal antibodies against Rh-positive blood, safeguarding the health of future babies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because RhoGAM is necessary after exposure to Rh-positive blood, regardless of the Rh status of future pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as it does not accurately convey the purpose of RhoGAM administration. Choice D is incorrect because RhoGAM is specifically given after exposure to Rh-positive blood, not when the baby is Rh-negative.
4. A pregnant woman in her first trimester is experiencing watery vaginal discharge. What should the nurse tell her?
- A. Inform her that it is normal.
- B. Advise her to see a doctor immediately.
- C. Suggest using panty liners.
- D. Suggest a change in diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Informing the pregnant woman that watery vaginal discharge is normal during the first trimester is crucial to providing reassurance and reducing anxiety. This discharge, known as leukorrhea, is common during pregnancy due to increased estrogen levels and increased blood flow to the pelvic area. It helps maintain a healthy balance of bacteria in the vagina and protects the birth canal from infection. Advising the woman to see a doctor immediately may cause unnecessary alarm, while suggesting the use of panty liners can help manage the discharge comfortably. Suggesting a change in diet is not relevant to addressing watery vaginal discharge in this scenario.
5. A father watching the admission of his newborn to the nursery notices that eye ointment is placed in the infant's eyes. He asks what is the purpose of the ointment. The nurse would be correct in stating that the purpose of the ointment is:
- A. Prevent eye infection.
- B. Dilate the pupil so the red reflex can be visualized.
- C. Clear the infant's vision.
- D. Prevent herpes infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prevent eye infection. Eye ointment, usually containing erythromycin, is applied to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis, which can be caused by bacteria present in the birth canal. It is not used to dilate the pupil, clear the infant's vision, or prevent herpes infection.
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