HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider prescribes oxytocin 2 milliunits/minute to induce labor for a client at 41-weeks gestation. The nurse initiates an infusion of Ringer’s Lactate solution 1000 mL with oxytocin 10 units. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?
- A. 12 mL/hour
- B. 2 mL/hour
- C. 22 mL/hour
- D. 42 mL/hour
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate in mL/hour, first, convert 2 milliunits/minute to milliunits/hour by multiplying by 60 to get 120 milliunits/hour. Then, calculate the mL/hour using the formula: milliunits/hour (120) × total volume (1000 mL) ÷ units in IV solution (10 units) = 1200 mL/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 12 mL/hour to provide the prescribed dose of oxytocin. Choice B is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C is incorrect as it is not derived from the correct formula. Choice D is incorrect as it is not the result of the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
2. The nurse is caring for a female client, a primigravida with preeclampsia. Findings include +2 proteinuria, BP 172/112 mmHg, facial and hand swelling, complaints of blurry vision and a severe frontal headache. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for this client?
- A. Clonidine hydrochloride
- B. Carbamazepine
- C. Furosemide
- D. Magnesium sulfate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario presented, the client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, including hypertension, proteinuria, facial and hand swelling, visual disturbances, and a severe headache. The medication of choice for preventing seizures in preeclampsia is magnesium sulfate. This drug helps to prevent and control seizures in clients with preeclampsia, making it the most appropriate option for this client. Clonidine hydrochloride (Choice A) is an antihypertensive medication used for managing hypertension but is not the first-line treatment for preeclampsia. Carbamazepine (Choice B) is an anticonvulsant used for seizure disorders like epilepsy and is not indicated for preeclampsia. Furosemide (Choice C) is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention but is not the drug of choice for treating preeclampsia.
3. A child with leukemia is admitted for chemotherapy, and the nursing diagnosis 'altered nutrition, less than body requirements related to anorexia, nausea, and vomiting' is identified. Which intervention should the nurse include in this child’s plan of care?
- A. Allow the child to eat any food desired and tolerated.
- B. Provide small, frequent meals that are high in protein and calories.
- C. Offer the child preferred foods and avoid foods that are not well-tolerated.
- D. Consult with a dietitian to provide appropriate nutritional support.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In children with leukemia undergoing chemotherapy, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting are common issues leading to altered nutrition. Providing small, frequent meals that are high in protein and calories is essential to address these symptoms and meet the child's nutritional needs effectively. This approach helps in managing the side effects of treatment and supporting the child's nutritional requirements during this challenging time.
4. A 5-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit with fever and pain secondary to a sickle cell crisis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain a culture of any sputum or wound drainage
- B. Initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr
- C. Administer a loading dose of penicillin IM
- D. Administer the initial dose of folic acid PO
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a child with a sickle cell crisis, the priority intervention is to initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr to manage dehydration and help alleviate pain. This intervention helps improve hydration status and supports the circulation of sickled red blood cells, reducing the risk of vaso-occlusive episodes and associated pain. Obtaining a culture of any sputum or wound drainage (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering a loading dose of penicillin IM (Choice C) is important but not the first intervention. Administering the initial dose of folic acid PO (Choice D) is beneficial but does not address the immediate need for hydration in a sickle cell crisis.
5. Why is complete bedrest necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III?
- A. Complete bedrest decreases oxygen needs and demands on the heart muscle tissue.
- B. We want your baby to be healthy, and this is the only way we can ensure that will happen.
- C. I know you're upset. Would you like to talk about some activities you could do while in bed?
- D. Labor is difficult, and you need to use this time to rest before assuming child-caring duties.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Complete bedrest is necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III to reduce the workload on the heart, lower oxygen consumption, and prevent complications associated with cardiac conditions like mitral stenosis. By remaining in bed, the client can help maintain cardiac function and promote a safer pregnancy outcome. Choice B is incorrect as it does not provide a specific reason related to the client's medical condition. Choice C is not addressing the medical necessity of bedrest for this particular client. Choice D is irrelevant and does not explain the importance of bedrest for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III.
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