Nursing Elites

1. A woman who gave birth 48 hours ago is bottle-feeding her infant. During assessment, the nurse determines that both breasts are swollen, warm, and tender upon palpation. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

• A. Apply cold compresses to both breasts for comfort.
• B. Instruct the client to run warm water on her breasts.
• C. Wear a loose-fitting bra to prevent nipple irritation.
• D. Express small amounts of milk to relieve pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After childbirth, engorgement of the breasts can occur, leading to swelling and discomfort. Applying cold compresses helps reduce swelling and provides comfort for engorged breasts. This action can also help with pain relief and promote milk flow regulation. Instructing the client to run warm water on her breasts (Choice B) is incorrect as warm water can increase blood flow and exacerbate swelling. Wearing a loose-fitting bra (Choice C) may provide some comfort, but it does not address the swelling effectively. Expressing small amounts of milk (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of engorgement.

2. A client receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to augment early labor. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain each time the infusion rate is increased?

• A. Pain level
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Infusion site
• D. Contraction pattern

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxytocin to augment labor, the most crucial assessment for the nurse to obtain each time the infusion rate is increased is monitoring the contraction pattern. Increasing the infusion rate of oxytocin can lead to stronger and more frequent contractions, which can have implications for both the mother and the baby. Monitoring the contraction pattern helps ensure the safe administration of oxytocin and allows for timely interventions if needed.

3. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

• A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
• B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
• C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
• D. Recent decreased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

4. When preparing a class on newborn care for expectant parents, what content should be taught concerning the newborn infant born at term gestation?

• A. Milia are white marks caused by sebaceous glands and typically resolve within 2 to 4 weeks.
• B. Meconium is the first stool and is typically dark green or black in color.
• C. Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance mainly found in skin folds, providing a protective layer.
• D. Pseudostrabismus in newborns usually self-resolves without the need for intervention.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance that acts as a protective barrier on the skin of newborns, particularly present in skin folds. It helps to prevent dehydration and protect the delicate skin of the newborn from the amniotic fluid in utero. Educating expectant parents about the presence and function of vernix caseosa can help them understand the importance of its preservation during the immediate postnatal period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the protective function of vernix caseosa in newborns. Milia are small, white bumps on the skin due to blocked oil glands, meconium is the first stool of a newborn and is typically dark green or black in color, and pseudostrabismus refers to false appearance of misalignment of the eyes, which usually resolves on its own without intervention.

5. During a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN notes that the client is not experiencing contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR accelerations are present. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Check the client for urinary bladder distention.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the nonreactive results.
• C. Have the mother stimulate the fetus to move.
• D. Ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. This action is important as assessing for fetal movement can help determine if the absence of FHR accelerations is attributed to fetal sleep or decreased fetal activity. It is crucial to gather information directly from the client to aid in the assessment and decision-making process. This approach can provide valuable insights into the fetal well-being and guide further interventions if needed.

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