Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide these parents?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
• B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
• C. The lack of the protein dystrophin in the mother can impact the XXX muscle groups of males.
• D. Spinal cord damage due to birth trauma during a breech vaginal birth weakens the muscles.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the gene mutation causing DMD is located on the X chromosome. Males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, so if the X chromosome they inherit from their mother carries the mutated gene, they will develop DMD. Females have two X chromosomes, so they are carriers of the gene but are usually not affected by the disease. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that DMD is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects male children in the family.

2. The client is 30 weeks pregnant and experiencing preterm labor. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to promote fetal lung maturity?

• A. Betamethasone (Celestone).
• B. Magnesium sulfate.
• C. Terbutaline (Brethine).
• D. Ampicillin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Betamethasone (Celestone) is the medication of choice to promote fetal lung maturity in cases of preterm labor. It helps accelerate surfactant production in the fetal lungs, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Administering betamethasone to the mother can improve the baby's lung function and overall outcome if preterm birth occurs. Magnesium sulfate is commonly used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia or eclampsia. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to suppress preterm labor contractions. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for various bacterial infections but does not promote fetal lung maturity.

3. A male infant with a 2-day history of fever and diarrhea is brought to the clinic by his mother, who tells the nurse that the child refuses to drink anything. The nurse determines that the child has a weak cry with no tears. Which intervention is most important to implement?

• A. Provide a bottle of electrolyte solution.
• B. Infuse normal saline intravenously.
• C. Administer an antipyretic rectally.
• D. Apply an external cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Infusing normal saline intravenously is crucial to treat dehydration caused by fever and diarrhea. In this scenario, the infant's weak cry with no tears indicates severe dehydration, necessitating rapid fluid replacement via intravenous normal saline to restore fluid balance and prevent complications.

4. After a client delivered vaginally 2 days ago, what information should you share with her if she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control?

• A. The diaphragm is the most effective form of contraception.
• B. The diaphragm must be refitted after childbirth.
• C. Vaseline lubricant should be used when inserting the diaphragm.
• D. The diaphragm should be inserted 2 to 4 hours before intercourse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After childbirth, the diaphragm must be refitted to ensure a proper fit and effectiveness. Changes in the body post-delivery can affect the fit of the diaphragm, making it necessary to get refitted. Choice A is incorrect because while the diaphragm can be effective, it is not the most effective form of contraception. Choice C is incorrect because oil-based lubricants like Vaseline can damage latex diaphragms. Choice D is incorrect because the diaphragm should be inserted no more than 2 hours before intercourse, not 2 to 4 hours.

5. When performing the daily head-to-toe assessment of a 1-day-old newborn, the nurse observes a yellow tint to the skin on the forehead, sternum, and abdomen. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Measure bilirubin levels using transcutaneous bilirubinometry.
• B. Evaluate cord blood Coombs test results.
• C. Review maternal medical records for blood type and Rh factor.
• D. Prepare the newborn for phototherapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presence of a yellow tint on the skin of a newborn suggests jaundice. The initial step in managing jaundice in a newborn is to measure bilirubin levels, typically done using transcutaneous bilirubinometry. This measurement helps determine the severity of jaundice and guides appropriate treatment interventions. Evaluating cord blood Coombs test results or reviewing maternal medical records for blood type and Rh factor are not the immediate actions indicated when jaundice is suspected. Phototherapy may be considered after confirming elevated bilirubin levels and assessing the need for treatment.

Similar Questions