Nursing Elites

1. The parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide these parents?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
• B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
• C. The lack of the protein dystrophin in the mother can impact the XXX muscle groups of males.
• D. Spinal cord damage due to birth trauma during a breech vaginal birth weakens the muscles.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the gene mutation causing DMD is located on the X chromosome. Males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, so if the X chromosome they inherit from their mother carries the mutated gene, they will develop DMD. Females have two X chromosomes, so they are carriers of the gene but are usually not affected by the disease. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that DMD is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects male children in the family.

2. An expectant father tells the LPN/LVN he fears that his wife 'is losing her mind.' He states she is constantly rubbing her abdomen and talking to the baby, and that she actually reprimands the baby when it moves too much. What recommendation should the nurse make to this expectant father?

• A. Reassure him that these are normal reactions to pregnancy and suggest that he discuss his concerns with the childbirth education nurse.
• B. Help him understand that his wife is experiencing normal maternal behaviors and bonding with the baby, and reassure him that these actions are positive.
• C. Ask him to observe his wife's behavior carefully for the next few weeks and report any similar behavior to the nurse at the next prenatal visit.
• D. Let him know that these behaviors are part of normal maternal-fetal bonding which occur once the mother feels fetal movement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The father's concerns about his wife's behaviors can be addressed by explaining that behaviors like talking to the baby and responding to fetal movements are part of normal maternal-fetal bonding. These actions indicate that the mother is connecting with the baby and are positive signs of a healthy pregnancy. The nurse should reassure the father that these behaviors are common and beneficial for the mother-baby relationship during pregnancy.

3. A primipara has delivered a stillborn fetus at 30 weeks gestation. To assist the parents in the grieving process, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Provide an opportunity for the parents to hold their infant in privacy.
• B. Assist the couple in completing a request for autopsy.
• C. Encourage the couple to seek family counseling within the next few weeks.
• D. Explain the possible causes of fetal demise.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Allowing the parents to hold their infant in privacy is crucial for facilitating the grieving process after the loss of a stillborn child. This intimate moment can help the parents create memories, bond with their baby, and start the healing process.

4. A client whose labor is being augmented with an oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion requests an epidural for pain control. Findings of the last vaginal exam, performed 1 hour ago, were 3 cm cervical dilation, 60% effacement, and a -2 station. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Decrease the oxytocin infusion rate
• B. Determine current cervical dilation
• C. Request placement of the epidural
• D. Give a bolus of intravenous fluids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client receiving an oxytocin infusion who requests an epidural, it is crucial to give a bolus of intravenous fluids first. This action helps prevent hypotension, a common side effect of epidural anesthesia, before the placement of the epidural. Maintaining adequate hydration is essential to support maternal blood pressure stability during the procedure.

5. The nurse is caring for a female client, a primigravida with preeclampsia. Findings include +2 proteinuria, BP 172/112 mmHg, facial and hand swelling, complaints of blurry vision and a severe frontal headache. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Clonidine hydrochloride
• B. Carbamazepine
• C. Furosemide
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, including hypertension, proteinuria, facial and hand swelling, visual disturbances, and a severe headache. The medication of choice for preventing seizures in preeclampsia is magnesium sulfate. This drug helps to prevent and control seizures in clients with preeclampsia, making it the most appropriate option for this client. Clonidine hydrochloride (Choice A) is an antihypertensive medication used for managing hypertension but is not the first-line treatment for preeclampsia. Carbamazepine (Choice B) is an anticonvulsant used for seizure disorders like epilepsy and is not indicated for preeclampsia. Furosemide (Choice C) is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention but is not the drug of choice for treating preeclampsia.

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