Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is preparing a client with a term pregnancy who is in active labor for an amniotomy. What equipment should the nurse have available at the client's bedside?

• A. Litmus paper.
• B. Fetal scalp electrode.
• C. A sterile glove.
• D. Needle and Thread

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For performing an amniotomy, the nurse should have a sterile glove to maintain asepsis and an amniotic hook to rupture the amniotic sac. Litmus paper is not required for this procedure, and a fetal scalp electrode is used for fetal monitoring, not for an amniotomy.

2. A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicates that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the LPN/LVN document in this client's record?

• A. 3-1-2-0-3.
• B. 4-1-2-0-3.
• C. 2-1-2-1-2.
• D. 3-1-1-0-3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct GTPAL for this client is 3-1-1-0-3. G (Gravida) is 3, indicating a total of 3 pregnancies. T (Term) is 1, representing 1 full-term delivery. P (Preterm) is 1, not 2 as mentioned in the question, as twins count as one pregnancy event. A (Abortions) is 0, and L (Living) is 3, indicating 3 living children (twins count as 1). Therefore, the correct answer is 3-1-1-0-3.

3. A 4-week-old premature infant has been receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for the last three weeks. Which assessment finding indicates to the healthcare provider that the drug is effective?

• A. Slowly increasing urinary output over the last week.
• B. Respiratory rate changes from the 40s to the 60s.
• C. Changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s.
• D. Change in indirect bilirubin from 12 mg/dl to 8 mg/dl.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis, leading to an increase in red blood cell production and improving oxygen-carrying capacity. As the oxygenation status improves, there is a reduction in heart rate. Therefore, changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s indicate that the drug is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the expected outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Increasing urinary output, changes in respiratory rate, and decreasing bilirubin levels are not primary indicators of the drug's effectiveness in this context.

4. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

• A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
• B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
• C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
• D. Recent decreased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

5. A laboring client’s membranes rupture spontaneously. The nurse notices that the amniotic fluid is greenish-brown. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Turn the client to her left side
• B. Contact the healthcare provider
• C. Assess the fetal heart rate
• D. Check the cervical dilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the fetal heart rate. When amniotic fluid is greenish-brown, it may indicate the presence of meconium, which can be concerning as it may lead to fetal distress. Assessing the fetal heart rate will help determine the well-being of the fetus and guide further actions to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.

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