Nursing Elites

1. Just after delivery, a new mother tells the nurse, 'I was unsuccessful breastfeeding my first child, but I would like to try with this baby.' Which intervention is best for the LPN/LVN to implement first?

• A. Assess the husband's feelings about his wife's decision to breastfeed their baby.
• B. Ask the client to describe why she was unsuccessful with breastfeeding her last child.
• C. Encourage the client to develop a positive attitude about breastfeeding to help ensure success.
• D. Provide assistance to the mother to begin breastfeeding as soon as possible after delivery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention is to provide immediate assistance to the mother to begin breastfeeding as soon as possible after delivery. This approach helps initiate bonding and successful breastfeeding. Taking action promptly can address the mother's desire to breastfeed and promote positive outcomes for both the mother and the newborn.

2. The LPN/LVN is providing discharge teaching for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The nurse explains to the client that her vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. The client asks, 'What if I start having red bleeding after it changes?' What should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Go to bed and assume a knee-chest position.
• C. Massage the uterus and go to the emergency room.
• D. Do not worry as this is a normal occurrence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client experiences a return to red bleeding after transitioning to pink and white, it may indicate possible complications like hemorrhage or retained placental fragments. Instructing the client to reduce activity level and promptly notify the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and management of these potentially serious postpartum complications. Choice B is incorrect as assuming a knee-chest position is not the appropriate action for red bleeding postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the uterus without professional assessment can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect because red bleeding after transitioning is not normal and should be evaluated promptly.

3. In planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation experiencing preterm labor, what maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory syndrome?

• A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12mg deep IM.
• B. Butorphanol 1mg IV push q2h PRN pain.
• C. Ampicillin 1g IV push q8h.
• D. Terbutaline (Brethine) 0.25mg subcutaneously q15 minutes x3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The administration of Betamethasone (Celestone) is crucial in cases of preterm labor to promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Betamethasone helps enhance the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, improving their functionality and decreasing the likelihood of respiratory complications upon birth. Butorphanol is an analgesic and not indicated for preventing respiratory syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for infection prevention and treatment, not for fetal lung maturation. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to inhibit contractions, but it does not have a direct effect on fetal lung maturity.

4. The nurse is caring for a 2-day old neonate who has not passed meconium and has a swollen abdomen. The healthcare provider reviews the flat plate X-ray of the abdomen and makes a tentative diagnosis of Hirschsprung's disease. Which pathophysiological process is consistent with this neonate's clinical picture?

• A. The congenital absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells to large intestine produces no peristalsis.
• B. Pyloric obstruction causes reflux and projectile hematemesis.
• C. Partial imperforated anal opening limits passage of stools.
• D. Peristalsis moving against the intestinal obstruction causing hyperactivity of the bowel.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hirschsprung's disease is caused by the absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the large intestine, leading to a lack of peristalsis and obstruction.

5. A newborn with a yellow abdomen and chest is being assessed. What should be the nurse's initial action?

• A. Assess bilirubin level.
• B. Administer phototherapy.
• C. Encourage feeding to help reduce bilirubin levels.
• D. Perform a bilirubin test every hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when assessing a newborn with a yellow abdomen and chest is to initially assess the bilirubin level. This helps determine the severity of jaundice in the newborn. Administering phototherapy (choice B) is a treatment intervention that follows the assessment. Encouraging feeding (choice C) can help with bilirubin excretion but is not the initial assessment. Performing a bilirubin test every hour (choice D) may not be necessary initially and could lead to unnecessary interventions.

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