Nursing Elites

1. Just after delivery, a new mother tells the nurse, 'I was unsuccessful breastfeeding my first child, but I would like to try with this baby.' Which intervention is best for the LPN/LVN to implement first?

• A. Assess the husband's feelings about his wife's decision to breastfeed their baby.
• B. Ask the client to describe why she was unsuccessful with breastfeeding her last child.
• C. Encourage the client to develop a positive attitude about breastfeeding to help ensure success.
• D. Provide assistance to the mother to begin breastfeeding as soon as possible after delivery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention is to provide immediate assistance to the mother to begin breastfeeding as soon as possible after delivery. This approach helps initiate bonding and successful breastfeeding. Taking action promptly can address the mother's desire to breastfeed and promote positive outcomes for both the mother and the newborn.

2. A client at 28 weeks gestation calls the antepartum clinic and reports experiencing a small amount of bright red vaginal bleeding without uterine contractions or abdominal pain. What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide?

• A. Come to the clinic today for an ultrasound.
• B. Go immediately to the emergency room.
• C. Lie on your left side for about one hour and see if the bleeding stops.
• D. Bring a urine specimen to the lab tomorrow to determine if you have a urinary tract infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bright red vaginal bleeding without pain could indicate placental issues such as previa. An ultrasound is necessary to evaluate the cause. It is important to rule out potential serious conditions like placental previa, which can lead to further complications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, prompt evaluation through an ultrasound at the clinic is essential for appropriate management and ensuring the well-being of the client and her baby.

3. The client is 24 weeks gestation and reports increased thirst and urination. Which diagnostic test result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Hemoglobin A1C.
• B. Postprandial blood glucose test.
• C. Oral glucose tolerance test.
• D. Fasting blood glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An abnormal oral glucose tolerance test result is indicative of gestational diabetes. This test is crucial in diagnosing gestational diabetes as it evaluates how well the body processes glucose after a sugary drink. Reporting abnormal results promptly allows for timely intervention and management to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. The other options are not the primary tests used to diagnose gestational diabetes. Hemoglobin A1C is not recommended for diagnosing gestational diabetes as it reflects long-term glucose control. Postprandial blood glucose and fasting blood glucose tests are not as sensitive as the oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosing gestational diabetes.

4. The caregiver observes a mother giving her 11-month-old ferrous sulfate (iron drops), followed by 2 ounces of orange juice. What should the caregiver do next?

• A. Tell the mother to follow the iron drops with infant formula instead of orange juice.
• B. Suggest placing the iron drops in the orange juice and then feeding the infant.
• C. Instruct the mother to feed the infant nothing for 30 minutes after giving the iron drops.
• D. Give the mother positive feedback about the way she administered the medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The high vitamin C content in orange juice aids in the absorption of iron. Providing positive feedback to the mother for administering the iron drops with orange juice is appropriate as it enhances iron absorption, benefiting the infant. Encouraging and acknowledging correct medication administration can help reinforce good practices and build confidence in the caregiver. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the beneficial practice of administering iron drops with orange juice, which enhances iron absorption. Changing the method of administration based on incorrect assumptions or instructing to withhold feeding after giving iron drops is unnecessary and not evidence-based.

5. A one-day-old neonate develops a cephalohematoma. The nurse should closely assess this neonate for which common complication?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Poor feeding.
• C. Brain injury.
• D. Hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum. As the blood breaks down, there is an increased risk of jaundice due to the release of bilirubin from the breakdown of red blood cells. Jaundice is a common complication associated with cephalohematoma in neonates. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the neonate for signs of jaundice and manage it accordingly.

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