Nursing Elites

1. The client is 24 weeks gestation and reports increased thirst and urination. Which diagnostic test result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Hemoglobin A1C.
• B. Postprandial blood glucose test.
• C. Oral glucose tolerance test.
• D. Fasting blood glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An abnormal oral glucose tolerance test result is indicative of gestational diabetes. This test is crucial in diagnosing gestational diabetes as it evaluates how well the body processes glucose after a sugary drink. Reporting abnormal results promptly allows for timely intervention and management to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. The other options are not the primary tests used to diagnose gestational diabetes. Hemoglobin A1C is not recommended for diagnosing gestational diabetes as it reflects long-term glucose control. Postprandial blood glucose and fasting blood glucose tests are not as sensitive as the oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosing gestational diabetes.

2. At 40-weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor with spontaneous rupture of amniotic membranes at home, in active labor, and feeling the urge to push. What information should the nurse prioritize obtaining?

• A. Color and consistency of fluid.
• B. Estimated amount of fluid.
• C. Any odor noted at the rupture of membranes.
• D. Time of membrane rupture.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the color and consistency of amniotic fluid is crucial as it can indicate the presence of meconium, which suggests potential fetal distress. This information guides the need for further assessments and interventions to ensure the well-being of the mother and fetus. Estimating the amount of fluid is not as critical as determining the color and consistency to identify fetal distress. While noting any odor is important, it is secondary to assessing the fluid itself. Knowing the time of membrane rupture is helpful but not as crucial as evaluating the characteristics of the amniotic fluid.

3. A 6-year-old child is diagnosed with rheumatic fever and demonstrates associated chorea (sudden aimless movements of the arms and legs). Which information should the nurse provide to the parents?

• A. Muscle tension decreases with fine motor skill projects, so these activities should be encouraged.
• B. The chorea or movements are temporary and will eventually disappear.
• C. Permanent lifestyle changes are not needed to promote safety in the home.
• D. Consistent discipline is not directly related to controlling the movements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chorea, or sudden aimless movements associated with rheumatic fever, is temporary in nature and will eventually disappear on its own. It is important for the nurse to reassure the parents that these movements are part of the condition and typically resolve over time without the need for permanent lifestyle changes or strict discipline. Providing accurate information and reassurance to the parents can help alleviate concerns and promote understanding of the condition's course. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because muscle tension, permanent lifestyle changes, and consistent discipline are not directly related to the resolution of chorea in rheumatic fever.

4. A 34-week primigravida woman with preeclampsia is receiving Lactated Ringer’s 500ml with magnesium sulfate 20 grams at the rate of 3g/hr. How many ml/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 75ml/hr
• B. 100ml/hr
• C. 50ml/hr
• D. 25ml/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, divide the total quantity to be infused (500ml) by the total time (1 hour) which equals 500ml/hr. Since the magnesium sulfate is being given at 3g/hr, and 1g of magnesium sulfate is in 5ml of solution, the rate will be 3g/hr x 5ml/g = 15ml/hr. Therefore, the total infusion rate should be 500ml/hr + 15ml/hr = 515ml/hr. Hence, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 75ml/hr (515ml/hr total - 500ml/hr Lactated Ringer's rate). This choice is correct because it accounts for both the Lactated Ringer's and magnesium sulfate rates. Choice B, 100ml/hr, is incorrect as it does not consider the additional magnesium sulfate infusion rate. Choice C, 50ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the magnesium sulfate infusion. Choice D, 25ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too low and does not consider the magnesium sulfate being infused concurrently.

5. The client is 30 weeks pregnant and experiencing preterm labor. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to promote fetal lung maturity?

• A. Betamethasone (Celestone).
• B. Magnesium sulfate.
• C. Terbutaline (Brethine).
• D. Ampicillin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Betamethasone (Celestone) is the medication of choice to promote fetal lung maturity in cases of preterm labor. It helps accelerate surfactant production in the fetal lungs, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Administering betamethasone to the mother can improve the baby's lung function and overall outcome if preterm birth occurs. Magnesium sulfate is commonly used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia or eclampsia. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to suppress preterm labor contractions. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for various bacterial infections but does not promote fetal lung maturity.

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