HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet
1. The client is 24 weeks gestation and reports increased thirst and urination. Which diagnostic test result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Hemoglobin A1C.
- B. Postprandial blood glucose test.
- C. Oral glucose tolerance test.
- D. Fasting blood glucose.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An abnormal oral glucose tolerance test result is indicative of gestational diabetes. This test is crucial in diagnosing gestational diabetes as it evaluates how well the body processes glucose after a sugary drink. Reporting abnormal results promptly allows for timely intervention and management to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. The other options are not the primary tests used to diagnose gestational diabetes. Hemoglobin A1C is not recommended for diagnosing gestational diabetes as it reflects long-term glucose control. Postprandial blood glucose and fasting blood glucose tests are not as sensitive as the oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosing gestational diabetes.
2. When should the LPN/LVN encourage the laboring client to begin pushing?
- A. When there is only an anterior or posterior lip of the cervix left.
- B. When the client describes the need to have a bowel movement.
- C. When the cervix is completely dilated.
- D. When the cervix is completely effaced.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The LPN/LVN should encourage the laboring client to begin pushing when the cervix is completely dilated to 10 centimeters. Pushing before full dilation can lead to cervical injury and ineffective labor progress. By waiting for complete dilation, the client can push effectively, aiding in the descent of the baby through the birth canal. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pushing before complete dilation can be harmful and may not effectively help in the descent of the baby. The presence of an anterior or posterior lip of the cervix, the urge to have a bowel movement, or complete effacement of the cervix are not indicators for the initiation of pushing during labor.
3. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as
- A. a cephalhematoma, caused by birth trauma and may last up to 8 weeks.
- B. a subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage to prevent further complications.
- C. molding, caused by pressure during labor and will disappear within 2 to 3 days.
- D. a subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.
4. When assessing a client who is at 12-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN recommends that she and her husband consider attending childbirth preparation classes. When is the best time for the couple to attend these classes?
- A. At 16 weeks gestation.
- B. At 20 weeks gestation.
- C. At 24 weeks gestation.
- D. At 30 weeks gestation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best time for the couple to attend childbirth preparation classes is around 30 weeks gestation, which is during the third trimester. Attending classes at this time allows the couple to learn essential information and skills as labor and delivery are approaching, maximizing the benefit of the classes. Option A is too early in the second trimester, and the couple might forget important details by the time labor approaches. Option B is also early in the second trimester, and attending later allows for better preparation. Option C is still in the second trimester, and waiting until the third trimester provides more practical knowledge closer to delivery.
5. Insulin therapy is initiated for a 12-year-old child who is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which action is most important for the nurse to include in the child’s plan of care?
- A. Monitor serum glucose for adjustment in the infusion rate of regular insulin (Novolin R).
- B. Determine the child’s compliance schedule for subcutaneous NPH insulin (Humulin N).
- C. Demonstrate to the parents how to program an insulin pen for daily glucose regulation.
- D. Consult with the healthcare provider about the use of insulin detemir (Levemir Flex Pen).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In managing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), monitoring serum glucose levels is crucial to adjust the infusion rate of regular insulin effectively. This helps in controlling blood glucose levels and preventing complications associated with DKA. Close monitoring and adjustments based on glucose levels are essential for the successful management of DKA. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on a different type of insulin and compliance schedule without addressing the immediate needs of managing DKA. Choice C is not the priority action and involves educating parents on a different method of insulin administration. Choice D is also not the most important action as it suggests consulting with the healthcare provider about a different type of insulin rather than focusing on immediate glucose monitoring for insulin adjustment in DKA management.
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