Nursing Elites

1. A pregnant woman in her first trimester is experiencing watery vaginal discharge. What should the nurse tell her?

• A. Inform her that it is normal.
• B. Advise her to see a doctor immediately.
• C. Suggest using panty liners.
• D. Suggest a change in diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informing the pregnant woman that watery vaginal discharge is normal during the first trimester is crucial to providing reassurance and reducing anxiety. This discharge, known as leukorrhea, is common during pregnancy due to increased estrogen levels and increased blood flow to the pelvic area. It helps maintain a healthy balance of bacteria in the vagina and protects the birth canal from infection. Advising the woman to see a doctor immediately may cause unnecessary alarm, while suggesting the use of panty liners can help manage the discharge comfortably. Suggesting a change in diet is not relevant to addressing watery vaginal discharge in this scenario.

2. Twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered, a laboring client's blood pressure drops from 120/80 to 90/60. What action should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately.
• B. Continue to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes.
• C. Place the woman in a lateral position.
• D. Turn off the continuous epidural.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the woman in a lateral position is the appropriate action to improve venous return and cardiac output, helping to stabilize the blood pressure. This position can alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, reducing the risk of hypotension associated with epidural anesthesia. Turning off the continuous epidural would not be the initial action as it may not be necessary and could lead to inadequate pain relief for the client. Notifying the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately is premature and should be done after attempting non-invasive interventions. Continuing to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes is important, but placing the woman in a lateral position should be the first intervention to address the hypotension.

3. The nurse instructs a laboring client to use accelerated-blow breathing. The client begins to complain of tingling fingers and dizziness. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer oxygen by face mask.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms.
• C. Have the client breathe into her cupped hands.
• D. Check the client's blood pressure and fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tingling fingers and dizziness are symptoms of hyperventilation, which can occur with accelerated-blow breathing. Instructing the client to breathe into her cupped hands can help rebreathe exhaled carbon dioxide, which can alleviate the symptoms by restoring the proper balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood. This intervention can be effective in managing the client's hyperventilation without the need for additional medical interventions at this point.

4. During a routine first-trimester prenatal exam, a pregnant client tells the nurse that she has noticed an increase in vaginal discharge that is white, thin, and watery. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Recommend explaining the normal physiological changes during pregnancy.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the complaint.
• C. Inform her that this is a normal physiological change.
• D. Prepare to provide education on vaginal health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The increased vaginal discharge described by the pregnant client, which is white, thin, and watery, is a common physiological change during pregnancy. It is typically normal and attributed to hormonal fluctuations. The nurse should reassure the client that this type of discharge is expected during pregnancy and does not typically indicate an issue requiring medical intervention or treatment.

5. The LPN/LVN assesses a client admitted to the labor and delivery unit and obtains the following data: dark red vaginal bleeding, uterus slightly tense between contractions, BP 110/68, FHR 110 beats/minute, cervix 1 cm dilated and uneffaced. Based on these assessment findings, what intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Insert an internal fetal monitor.
• B. Assess for cervical changes q1h.
• C. Monitor bleeding from IV sites.
• D. Perform Leopold's maneuvers.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring for bleeding from IV sites is the priority intervention in this situation. The dark red vaginal bleeding, uterine tension, and other assessment findings suggest a potential placental abruption. Monitoring bleeding from IV sites can help detect coagulopathy, which may be associated with placental abruption. Options A, B, and D are not the most appropriate interventions in this scenario. Inserting an internal fetal monitor, assessing for cervical changes, and performing Leopold's maneuvers are not the priority actions when dark red vaginal bleeding and uterine tension are present, indicating a potential emergency situation.

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