Nursing Elites

1. A pregnant woman in her first trimester is experiencing watery vaginal discharge. What should the nurse tell her?

• A. Inform her that it is normal.
• B. Advise her to see a doctor immediately.
• C. Suggest using panty liners.
• D. Suggest a change in diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informing the pregnant woman that watery vaginal discharge is normal during the first trimester is crucial to providing reassurance and reducing anxiety. This discharge, known as leukorrhea, is common during pregnancy due to increased estrogen levels and increased blood flow to the pelvic area. It helps maintain a healthy balance of bacteria in the vagina and protects the birth canal from infection. Advising the woman to see a doctor immediately may cause unnecessary alarm, while suggesting the use of panty liners can help manage the discharge comfortably. Suggesting a change in diet is not relevant to addressing watery vaginal discharge in this scenario.

2. The healthcare provider is reviewing the serum laboratory findings for a 5-day-old infant with congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Which laboratory result should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Bilirubin of 1.5 mg/dl.
• B. Glucose of 80 mg/dl.
• C. Potassium of 4.5 mEq/L.
• D. Sodium of 119 mEq/L.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Low sodium levels in congenital adrenal hyperplasia can indicate salt-wasting crisis, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate medical attention. Monitoring sodium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as dehydration and shock in these patients.

3. After a full-term vaginal delivery, a postpartum client's white blood cell count is 15,000/mm3. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the differential, as the WBC count can be normal for this client.
• B. Assess the client's temperature, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider, as this finding may indicate infection.
• D. Assess the client's perineal area for signs of a perineal hematoma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In postpartum clients, a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 can be within normal limits due to physiological changes that occur after childbirth. Checking the differential count would provide a more detailed analysis of the specific types of white blood cells present, helping to differentiate between normal postpartum changes and potential infection. This action allows the nurse to gather more information before escalating the situation to the healthcare provider or initiating other assessments. Assessing vital signs and the perineal area are important aspects of postpartum care but may not be the priority in this scenario where the white blood cell count can be influenced by normal physiological changes.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?

• A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
• B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
• C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
• D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.

5. The caregiver observes a mother giving her 11-month-old ferrous sulfate (iron drops), followed by 2 ounces of orange juice. What should the caregiver do next?

• A. Tell the mother to follow the iron drops with infant formula instead of orange juice.
• B. Suggest placing the iron drops in the orange juice and then feeding the infant.
• C. Instruct the mother to feed the infant nothing for 30 minutes after giving the iron drops.
• D. Give the mother positive feedback about the way she administered the medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The high vitamin C content in orange juice aids in the absorption of iron. Providing positive feedback to the mother for administering the iron drops with orange juice is appropriate as it enhances iron absorption, benefiting the infant. Encouraging and acknowledging correct medication administration can help reinforce good practices and build confidence in the caregiver. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the beneficial practice of administering iron drops with orange juice, which enhances iron absorption. Changing the method of administration based on incorrect assumptions or instructing to withhold feeding after giving iron drops is unnecessary and not evidence-based.

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