Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is making initial rounds on a client with a C5 fracture and crutch field tongs. Which equipment should be kept at the bedside?

• A. A pair of forceps
• B. A torque wrench
• C. A pair of wire cutters
• D. A screwdriver

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A torque wrench is essential equipment to keep at the bedside for a client with a C5 fracture and crutch field tongs. This tool is used to tighten and loosen the screws of the crutch field tongs, allowing the nurse to adjust the pressure on the screws for proper support and alignment. A pair of forceps (choice A), wire cutters (choice C), and a screwdriver (choice D) are not required for managing crutch field tongs and, therefore, are incorrect choices in this scenario.

2. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

3. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?

• A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
• B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
• C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
• D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.

4. When a staff member is observed not following the plan of care for a client with an antisocial personality disorder, what should the nurse do?

• A. confront the staff member immediately and say, "You know that is not the treatment plan."?
• B. write an incident report to create a paper trail of the staff member's failure to follow the planned program.
• C. ask the staff member to talk in private, and reinforce how antisocial clients try to divide staff.
• D. bring up the incident during the weekly conference so that this staff member is not assigned to work with antisocial persons again.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a staff member is observed not following the plan of care for a client with an antisocial personality disorder, it is crucial to address the issue promptly and effectively. Confronting the staff member immediately in front of the client may worsen the situation by enhancing the division of staff and compromising client care. Writing an incident report, although important for documentation, may not address the immediate need to correct the behavior. Bringing up the incident during a weekly conference may not be the most effective approach for immediate resolution. Asking the staff member to talk in private and reinforcing how antisocial clients try to divide staff is the best option. This approach allows for a constructive conversation to address the issue, provide education, and help the staff member develop skills to work effectively with this client population.

5. A client arrives in the emergency room with a possible fractured femur. The nurse should anticipate an order for:

• A. Trendelenburg position
• B. Ice to the entire extremity
• C. Buck's traction
• D. An abduction pillow

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Buck's traction. This intervention is used to realign the fractured femur, reduce spasms, and alleviate pain. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position is inappropriate for a femur fracture, making answer A incorrect. While ice may be used post-repair, applying it to the entire extremity is unnecessary, so answer B is wrong. An abduction pillow is typically employed following a total hip replacement, not for a fractured femur, rendering answer D incorrect.

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