Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving oral potassium chloride supplements. The nurse notes that the patient has a heart rate of 120 beats per minute and has had a urine output of 200 mL in the past 12 hours. The patient reports abdominal cramping. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Contact the provider to request an order for serum electrolytes.
• B. Encourage the patient to consume less fluids.
• C. Report symptoms of hyperkalemia to the provider.
• D. Request an order to increase the patient’s potassium dose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oliguria, tachycardia, and abdominal cramping are signs of hyperkalemia, so the nurse should request an order for serum electrolytes to assess the patient's potassium levels. Encouraging the patient to consume less fluids would not address the underlying issue of potential hyperkalemia. Reporting symptoms of hyperkalemia to the provider is not as proactive as directly requesting serum electrolytes. Increasing the patient's potassium dose would worsen hyperkalemia, which is already suspected based on the symptoms presented.

2. A client has just regained bowel sounds after undergoing surgery. The physician has prescribed a clear liquid diet for the client. Which of the following items should the nurse ensure is available in the client’s room before allowing the client to drink?

• A. Straw
• B. Napkin
• C. Oxygen saturation monitor
• D. Suction equipment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After surgery, when a client has just regained bowel sounds and is prescribed a clear liquid diet, the nurse needs to consider the possibility of impaired swallow reflexes due to anesthesia effects, leading to an increased risk of aspiration. Despite checking the gag and swallow reflexes before offering fluids, having suction equipment readily available in the client's room is essential to manage any potential aspiration risk. Therefore, the correct answer is suction equipment (choice D). Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while a straw, napkin, and oxygen saturation monitor may be useful in other situations, they are not directly related to managing the risk of aspiration associated with offering fluids to a client post-surgery.

3. After three days of persistent epigastric pain, a female client presents to the clinic. She has been taking oral antacids without relief. Her vital signs are heart rate 122 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation 96%, and blood pressure 116/70. The nurse obtains a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Which assessment finding is most critical?

• A. Irregular pulse rhythm
• B. Bile-colored emesis
• C. ST elevation in three leads
• D. Complaint of radiating jaw pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: ST elevation in three leads is a critical finding that suggests myocardial infarction, requiring immediate attention. This finding indicates ischemia or injury to the heart muscle. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in this scenario. Irregular pulse rhythm may be concerning but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition like myocardial infarction. Bile-colored emesis and complaint of radiating jaw pain are relevant but not as indicative of a myocardial infarction as ST elevation in three leads.

4. A patient asks the nurse about taking calcium supplements to avoid hypocalcemia. The nurse will suggest that the patient follow which instruction?

• A. Take a calcium and vitamin D combination supplement.
• B. Take calcium along with phosphorus to improve absorption.
• C. Take calcium with antacids to reduce stomach upset.
• D. Use aspirin instead of acetaminophen when taking calcium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to take a calcium and vitamin D combination supplement. Vitamin D enhances the absorption of calcium in the body, making it an essential component for calcium utilization. Choice B is incorrect because calcium and phosphorus have an inverse relationship, where an increased level of one mineral decreases the level of the other, so taking them together may not be beneficial. Choice C is incorrect because antacids often contain magnesium, which can promote calcium loss instead of absorption. Choice D is incorrect because aspirin can alter vitamin D levels and interfere with calcium absorption, so it is not recommended when taking calcium supplements.

5. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors may be prescribed for the client with diabetes mellitus to reduce vascular changes and possibly prevent or delay the development of:

• A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
• B. Pancreatic cancer.
• C. Renal failure.
• D. Cerebrovascular accident.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Renal failure. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in clients with diabetes mellitus to help reduce the progression of diabetic nephropathy by improving renal blood flow. This medication class can help prevent or delay the development of renal failure in these clients. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because ACE inhibitors do not have a direct impact on preventing or delaying the development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, pancreatic cancer, or cerebrovascular accidents in clients with diabetes mellitus.

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