HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A 58-year-old client who has been post-menopausal for five years is concerned about the risk for osteoporosis because her mother has the condition. Which information should the nurse offer?
- A. Osteoporosis is a progressive genetic disease with no effective treatment.
- B. Calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and exercise.
- C. Estrogen replacement therapy should be started to prevent the progression of osteoporosis.
- D. Low-dose corticosteroid treatment effectively halts the course of osteoporosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Post-menopausal females are at risk for osteoporosis due to the cessation of estrogen secretion. While genetics can play a role, osteoporosis is not solely a genetic disease. Increasing calcium intake, along with vitamin D supplementation and weight-bearing exercise, can help prevent further bone loss by slowing down calcium loss from bones. Estrogen replacement therapy is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment for osteoporosis due to associated risks. Corticosteroid treatment is not typically used as a primary treatment for osteoporosis.
2. The nurse instructs the unlicensed nursing personnel (UAP) on how to provide oral hygiene for clients who cannot perform this task for themselves. Which of the following techniques should the nurse tell the UAP to incorporate into the client's daily care?
- A. Assess the oral cavity each time mouth care is given and record observations.
- B. Use a soft toothbrush to brush the client's teeth after each meal.
- C. Swab the client's tongue, gums, and lips with a soft foam applicator every 2 hours.
- D. Rinse the client's mouth with mouthwash several times a day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct technique to incorporate into the client's daily care for oral hygiene is to use a soft toothbrush to brush the client's teeth after each meal. This helps in maintaining oral hygiene for clients who cannot perform this task themselves. Choice A is incorrect because assessing the oral cavity each time mouth care is given is important but not the technique to incorporate into daily care. Choice C is incorrect as swabbing the tongue, gums, and lips every 2 hours may not be necessary for daily care. Choice D is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with mouthwash several times a day may not be suitable for all clients and is not a standard recommendation for daily oral care.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is on a low-potassium diet. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?
- A. Bananas
- B. Potatoes
- C. Rice
- D. Apples
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium content, which can lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic renal failure who are on a low-potassium diet. Therefore, it is crucial for these clients to avoid bananas. Potatoes, rice, and apples are lower in potassium compared to bananas and are generally considered safe for consumption in clients with chronic renal failure on a low-potassium diet.
4. A client is getting out of bed for the first time since surgery. The client complains of dizziness after the nurse raises the head of the bed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Checking the client’s blood pressure
- B. Checking the oxygen saturation level
- C. Having the client take some deep breaths
- D. Lowering the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness is relieved
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client experiences dizziness after being positioned upright for the first time post-surgery, the initial action the nurse should take is to lower the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness subsides. This maneuver helps alleviate the dizziness by allowing the body to adapt gradually to the change in position. Subsequently, the nurse should assess the client's pulse and blood pressure. Checking the blood pressure is essential to evaluate the circulatory status and rule out orthostatic hypotension as a cause of dizziness. Checking the oxygen saturation level and having the client take deep breaths are not the priority in this scenario as the primary concern is addressing the circulatory issue causing dizziness, not a respiratory problem.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is receiving an intravenous antibiotic. The patient has a serum drug trough of 1.5 mcg/mL. The normal trough for this drug is 1.7 mcg/mL to 2.2 mcg/mL. What will the healthcare provider expect the patient to experience?
- A. Inadequate drug effects
- B. Increased risk of superinfection
- C. Minimal adverse effects
- D. Slowed onset of action
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum drug trough level below the normal range (1.7 mcg/mL to 2.2 mcg/mL) indicates that the medication concentration is insufficient to provide therapeutic effects, leading to inadequate drug effects. A low trough level does not directly correlate with an increased risk of superinfection, minimal adverse effects, or a slowed onset of action, as these are more related to the drug's concentration within the therapeutic range.
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