HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A 58-year-old client who has been post-menopausal for five years is concerned about the risk for osteoporosis because her mother has the condition. Which information should the nurse offer?
- A. Osteoporosis is a progressive genetic disease with no effective treatment.
- B. Calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and exercise.
- C. Estrogen replacement therapy should be started to prevent the progression of osteoporosis.
- D. Low-dose corticosteroid treatment effectively halts the course of osteoporosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Post-menopausal females are at risk for osteoporosis due to the cessation of estrogen secretion. While genetics can play a role, osteoporosis is not solely a genetic disease. Increasing calcium intake, along with vitamin D supplementation and weight-bearing exercise, can help prevent further bone loss by slowing down calcium loss from bones. Estrogen replacement therapy is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment for osteoporosis due to associated risks. Corticosteroid treatment is not typically used as a primary treatment for osteoporosis.
2. A nurse plans care for an older adult client. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care to promote kidney health? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Ensure adequate fluid intake.
- B. Leave the bathroom light on at night.
- C. Encourage use of the toilet every 6 hours.
- D. A & B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct interventions to promote kidney health in an older adult client include ensuring adequate fluid intake to maintain hydration and leaving the bathroom light on at night to promote safe ambulation. Adequate hydration supports kidney function and helps prevent urinary tract infections. Encouraging the use of the toilet every 6 hours is not specific to kidney health and may not be individualized to the client's needs. Providing thorough perineal care after each voiding is important for hygiene but not directly related to promoting kidney health. Assessing for urinary retention and urinary tract infections is crucial but falls under assessment rather than interventions for promoting kidney health specifically.
3. During an assessment on a patient brought to the emergency department for treatment for dehydration, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 86/50 mm Hg, and a temperature of 39.5° C. The patient becomes dizzy when transferred from the wheelchair to a bed. The nurse observes cool, clammy skin. Which diagnosis does the nurse suspect?
- A. Fluid volume deficit (FVD)
- B. Fluid volume excess (FVE)
- C. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit
- D. Renal failure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should suspect Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD) in this patient. Signs of FVD include elevated temperature, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, orthostatic hypotension, and cool, clammy skin, which align with the patient's assessment findings. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) typically presents with bounding pulses, elevated blood pressure, dyspnea, and crackles. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit usually manifests as thirst. Renal failure commonly results in Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) rather than Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD).
4. The healthcare provider caring for a patient who will receive penicillin to treat an infection asks the patient about previous drug reactions. The patient reports having had a rash when taking amoxicillin (Amoxil). The healthcare provider will contact the provider to
- A. discuss giving a smaller dose of penicillin.
- B. discuss using erythromycin (E-mycin) instead of penicillin.
- C. request an order for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
- D. suggest that the patient receive cefuroxime (Ceftin).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient reports a previous rash with amoxicillin, which is a type of penicillin, there is a concern for a penicillin allergy. In such cases, using an alternative antibiotic like erythromycin, which is not a penicillin, is the appropriate approach to avoid potential cross-reactivity and allergic reactions. Giving smaller doses of penicillin does not address the underlying allergy issue and can still lead to severe hypersensitivity reactions. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is used to manage allergic reactions but should not be the first choice in changing the antibiotic. While some patients allergic to penicillins may also be allergic to cephalosporins like cefuroxime, it is not the best immediate alternative in this scenario.
5. What is a priority intervention for a patient experiencing a thyroid storm?
- A. Administering antipyretics.
- B. Cooling the patient.
- C. Administering beta-blockers.
- D. Administering antithyroid medications.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a thyroid storm, the priority intervention is to administer antithyroid medications to reduce thyroid hormone levels quickly. These medications, such as propylthiouracil or methimazole, help inhibit the production of thyroid hormones. Administering antipyretics (choice A) may help reduce fever, but it does not address the underlying cause of the thyroid storm. Cooling the patient (choice B) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the thyroid hormone dysregulation. Administering beta-blockers (choice C) can help manage symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension, but it does not target the root cause of the thyroid storm.
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