Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute glomerulonephritis (GN) is being evaluated by a nurse. Which manifestation should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the prescribed treatment?

• A. The client has lost 11 pounds in the past 10 days.
• B. The client’s urine specific gravity is 1.048.
• C. No blood is observed in the client’s urine.
• D. The client’s blood pressure is 152/88 mm Hg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A weight loss of 11 pounds in the past 10 days indicates fluid loss, a positive response to treatment for acute glomerulonephritis. It signifies that the glomeruli are functioning adequately to filter excess fluid. A urine specific gravity of 1.048 is high, indicating concentrated urine, which is not a positive response in this context. Blood in the urine is not a typical finding in glomerulonephritis, so its absence is expected and does not indicate a positive response to treatment. A blood pressure of 152/88 mm Hg is elevated and may suggest kidney damage or fluid overload, which are not positive responses to treatment.

2. The nurse assesses a client who is newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and observes that the client's eyeballs are protuberant, causing a wide-eyed appearance and eye discomfort. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Assess for signs of increased intracranial pressure
• B. Prepare to administer intravenous levothyroxine
• C. Review the client's serum electrolyte values
• D. Obtain a prescription for artificial tear drops

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hyperthyroidism, eye discomfort due to protuberant eyeballs (exophthalmos) can be alleviated by using artificial tear drops. These drops help prevent complications associated with dry eyes and promote comfort. Assessing for signs of increased intracranial pressure (Choice A) is not directly related to the client's eye discomfort from hyperthyroidism. Administering intravenous levothyroxine (Choice B) is not the appropriate intervention for managing eye discomfort in hyperthyroidism. Reviewing serum electrolyte values (Choice C) is important in hyperthyroidism but is not directly addressing the client's current eye discomfort and protuberant eyeballs.

3. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) weighing 50kg and having a potassium level of 6.7mEq/L (6.7mmol/L) is admitted to the hospital. Which prescribed medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Calcium acetate, one tablet by mouth
• B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate, 15 grams by mouth
• C. Epoetin Alfa, recombinant, 2,500 units subcutaneously
• D. Sevelamer, one tablet by mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) and hyperkalemia, the priority intervention is to lower the potassium level swiftly. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is a medication used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, reducing the overall potassium levels. Calcium acetate, epoetin alfa, and sevelamer are not indicated for the immediate reduction of potassium levels in hyperkalemia. Calcium acetate is used to control phosphate levels, epoetin alfa is a medication to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production, and sevelamer is a phosphate binder used in chronic kidney disease to reduce phosphate levels.

4. Which of the following is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea?

• A. Supine position.
• B. Fowler's position.
• C. Trendelenburg position.
• D. Lateral recumbent position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fowler's position is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea. This position involves sitting the patient upright with the head of the bed elevated between 45-60 degrees. Fowler's position helps improve breathing in patients with dyspnea by promoting lung expansion, aiding in better oxygenation, and reducing the work of breathing. The supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position (Choice C) with the feet elevated and the head down is not recommended for dyspnea as it can increase pressure on the chest and compromise breathing. The lateral recumbent position (Choice D) is not ideal for dyspnea as it does not provide optimal lung expansion and may not alleviate breathing difficulty.

5. The nurse is teaching a patient who will be discharged home from the hospital to take amoxicillin (Amoxil) twice daily for 10 days. Which statement by the nurse is correct?

• A. Discontinue the antibiotic when your temperature returns to normal and your symptoms have improved.
• B. If diarrhea occurs, stop taking the drug immediately and contact your provider.
• C. Stop taking the drug and notify your provider if you develop a rash while taking this drug.
• D. You may save any unused antibiotic to use if your symptoms recur.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patients who develop signs of allergy, such as rash, should notify their provider before continuing medication therapy. Patients should be counseled to continue taking their antibiotics until completion of the prescribed regimen even when they feel well. Diarrhea is an adverse effect but does not warrant cessation of the drug. Before deciding to stop taking a medication due to a side effect, encourage the patient to contact the provider first. Patients should discard any unused antibiotic.

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