HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. The nurse is preparing to administer doses of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient who has heart failure. The patient reports having blurred vision. The nurse notes a heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 140/78 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Administer the medications and request an order for serum electrolytes.
- B. Give both medications and evaluate serum blood glucose frequently.
- C. Hold the digoxin and notify the provider.
- D. Hold the hydrochlorothiazide and notify the provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient is experiencing symptoms of digoxin toxicity, such as blurred vision and bradycardia. When thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide are taken with digoxin, the patient is at risk of digoxin toxicity due to the potential for thiazides to cause hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the digoxin and notify the provider. Administering the medications without addressing the potential toxicity could worsen the patient's condition. Requesting serum electrolytes (Choice A) may be necessary but holding the digoxin takes priority. Evaluating serum blood glucose (Choice B) is not relevant to the current situation. Holding hydrochlorothiazide (Choice D) is not the best option as the primary concern is the digoxin toxicity that needs to be addressed promptly.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia. Which action by the nurse is best?
- A. Check the client’s digoxin (Lanoxin) level.
- B. Administer an anti-nausea medication.
- C. Ask if the client can eat crackers.
- D. Refer the client to a gastrointestinal specialist.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing symptoms like nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia, it is crucial for the nurse to suspect digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity. These symptoms are indicative of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the best action for the nurse to take is to check the client's digoxin level. Administering anti-nausea medication, asking about eating crackers, and referring to a gastrointestinal specialist may help with symptom management but do not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which is digoxin toxicity in this case.
3. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed a low-protein diet. The nurse should explain to the client that the purpose of this diet is to:
- A. Prevent fluid overload.
- B. Reduce the workload on the kidneys.
- C. Prevent dehydration.
- D. Maintain electrolyte balance.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Reduce the workload on the kidneys.' A low-protein diet is prescribed for clients with chronic renal failure to decrease the production of urea and other nitrogenous wastes, which can accumulate in the body when the kidneys are not functioning properly. This reduction in protein intake helps to lessen the burden on the kidneys, as they may have difficulty in filtering and excreting waste products. Choice A is incorrect because fluid overload is more related to restrictions in fluid intake rather than protein intake. Choice C is incorrect as a low-protein diet does not directly prevent dehydration. Choice D is incorrect because while electrolyte balance is essential in renal failure, the primary purpose of a low-protein diet is to reduce the workload on the kidneys by limiting the production of waste products.
4. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with kidney trauma and notes that the client’s abdomen is tender and distended, and blood is visible at the urinary meatus. Which prescription should the nurse consult the provider about before implementation?
- A. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes
- B. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
- C. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr
- D. Typing and crossmatching for blood products
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with kidney trauma and blood visible at the urinary meatus, inserting a urinary catheter via the urethra should be avoided until further diagnostic studies are completed to prevent potential urethral tears. The nurse should consult the provider about the need for a catheter; if necessary, a suprapubic catheter can be used instead. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes is important for continuous monitoring of the client's condition. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr is crucial to maintain hydration and support kidney function. Typing and crossmatching for blood products is necessary in case the client requires blood transfusion due to potential blood loss from the trauma.
5. What is the primary purpose of administering IV fluids to a patient in septic shock?
- A. To reduce blood pressure.
- B. To increase cardiac output.
- C. To stabilize blood glucose levels.
- D. To maintain adequate tissue perfusion.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The primary purpose of administering IV fluids to a patient in septic shock is to maintain adequate tissue perfusion. In septic shock, there is a significant drop in blood pressure and systemic vascular resistance leading to poor tissue perfusion. IV fluids help to restore intravascular volume, improve perfusion to vital organs, and prevent organ failure. Choice A ('To reduce blood pressure') is incorrect because IV fluids in septic shock aim to restore tissue perfusion rather than lower blood pressure. Choice B ('To increase cardiac output') is incorrect as the primary goal is to improve tissue perfusion, not specifically increase cardiac output. Choice C ('To stabilize blood glucose levels') is unrelated to the primary purpose of administering IV fluids in septic shock, which is to address the compromised tissue perfusion.
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