Nursing Elites

1. A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each month before her menstrual period, painful intercourse, and painful defecation. Which additional history should the nurse obtain that is consistent with the client's complaints?

• A. Frequent urinary tract infections.
• B. Inability to get pregnant.
• C. Premenstrual syndrome.
• D. Chronic use of laxatives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Inability to get pregnant.' The symptoms described in the client's complaints, which include severe abdominal pain before menstruation, painful intercourse, and painful defecation, are indicative of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a condition characterized by the abnormal presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus, commonly leading to infertility. While choices A, C, and D may be associated with other conditions, they are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client, making them incorrect choices. Frequent urinary tract infections may suggest a different issue, premenstrual syndrome does not typically present with severe abdominal pain, and chronic use of laxatives is not a typical symptom of endometriosis.

2. When preparing a client who has had a total laryngectomy for discharge, what instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Recommend that the client carry suction equipment at all times.
• B. Instruct the client to have writing materials with them at all times.
• C. Tell the client to carry a medic alert card stating that they are a total neck breather.
• D. Tell the client not to travel alone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial instruction for a client who has had a total laryngectomy is to carry a medic alert card stating that they are a total neck breather. This is important because if they experience a cardiac arrest, mouth-to-neck breathing may be required. Choice A about carrying suction equipment is not the most critical as the client may not always need it. Choice B is not as essential as having a medic alert card. Choice D is not directly related to the client's safety due to their laryngectomy.

3. A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection. The laboratory report notes a “shift to the left” in the client’s white blood cell count. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells.
• B. Notify the provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics.
• C. Collaborate with the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to strain the client’s urine for renal calculi.
• D. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A “shift to the left” in a white blood cell count indicates an increase in band cells, which is typically associated with urosepsis. In this scenario, the nurse should notify the provider and initiate IV antibiotics as a left shift is often seen in severe infections like urosepsis. Requesting a differential analysis on white blood cells would not be the immediate action needed in response to a left shift. Collaborating to strain urine for renal calculi is unrelated to the situation of a left shift in white blood cells due to urosepsis. Assessing for allergic reactions and anaphylactic shock is not the priority as a left shift is not indicative of an allergic response; it is associated with an increase in band cells, not eosinophils.

4. A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
• B. Infrequent intercourse results in the vaginal tissues losing their elasticity.
• C. Dehydration from inadequate fluid intake causes vulva tissue dryness.
• D. Lack of adequate stimulation is the most common reason for dyspareunia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing the client's use of medications. Which of the following medications may cause a complication with the treatment plan of a client with diabetes?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Steroids
• C. Sulfonylureas
• D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Steroids. Steroids can induce hyperglycemia, complicating diabetes management by raising blood sugar levels. Aspirin is not typically associated with causing complications in diabetic clients. Sulfonylureas are oral antidiabetic medications that can lower blood sugar levels and are commonly used in diabetes management, making them beneficial rather than harmful. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are medications often prescribed to manage hypertension in diabetic clients and do not typically interfere with diabetes treatment plans.

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