Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with epilepsy who is being treated with carbamazepine (Tegretol). Which laboratory value might indicate a serious side effect of this drug?

• A. Uric acid of 5 mg/dL
• B. Hematocrit of 33%
• C. WBC 2,000 per cubic millimeter
• D. Platelets 150,000 per cubic millimeter

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) can suppress the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in the white blood cell count. A laboratory value of WBC 2,000 per cubic millimeter indicates a serious side effect of the drug. Choices A and D are within normal limits, while choice B is at the lower limit of normal. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect.

2. A health care worker is concerned about a new mother being overwhelmed by caring for her infant. What should the health care worker do?

• A. Immediately contact child protective services.
• B. Provide the mother with literature about child care.
• C. Consult a therapist to help the mother work out her fears.
• D. Refer the mother to parenting classes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a health care worker is concerned about a new mother being overwhelmed by caring for her infant, the best course of action is to refer the mother to parenting classes. Prevention of child abuse is focused on educating parents on how to care for their child and handle the demands of infant care. By attending parenting classes, the mother can build self-confidence, self-esteem, and coping skills. Parenting classes help parents understand the developmental needs of their children and learn effective ways to manage their home environment. Additionally, these classes provide parents with increased social contacts and knowledge about community resources. Contacting child protective services (choice A) should not be the immediate action as there is no indication of abuse. Providing literature about child care (choice B) may not be as effective as hands-on parenting classes. Consulting a therapist (choice C) may be beneficial, but addressing parenting skills through classes is more appropriate in this scenario.

3. In the emergency room, a nurse is responsible for triaging four clients injured in a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following clients should receive priority in care?

• A. A 10-year-old with lacerations on the face
• B. A 15-year-old with sternal bruises
• C. A 34-year-old with a fractured femur
• D. A 50-year-old with a dislocated elbow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The 15-year-old with sternal bruises should receive priority in care as this client might be experiencing airway and oxygenation problems. Airway issues take precedence in triage. The 10-year-old with lacerations on the face, although looking bad, is not in immediate distress. The 34-year-old with a fractured femur should be immobilized but can be seen after the client with sternal bruising. The 50-year-old with a dislocated elbow can also be seen later as dislocated elbows are not life-threatening compared to potential airway compromise.

4. While assessing a client who is dying for signs of impending death, what should the nurse observe for?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
• C. Elevated pulse rate
• D. Decreased temperature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client for signs of impending death, the nurse should observe for Cheyne-Stokes respiration. This pattern involves rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep breathing to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. It is often associated with cardiac failure and can be a significant indicator of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typical signs of impending death; in fact, they may indicate other conditions. A decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death, as temperature changes can vary among individuals and may not always correlate with the dying process.

5. The nurse is assisting the RN with discharge instructions for a client with an implantable defibrillator. What discharge instruction is essential?

• A. "You can eat food prepared in a microwave."?
• B. "You should avoid moving the shoulder on the side of the defibrillator site for 6 weeks."?
• C. "You should use your cellphone on your right side."?
• D. "You will be able to fly on a commercial airliner with the defibrillator in place."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The essential discharge instruction for a client with an implantable defibrillator is to use any battery-operated machinery on the opposite side, including cellphones. This is to prevent interference with the device. Additionally, the client should monitor their pulse rate and report any dizziness or fainting, which could indicate issues with the defibrillator. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because clients with implantable defibrillators can eat food prepared in the microwave, move their shoulder on the affected side after the initial healing period, and are allowed to fly on commercial airliners with the defibrillator in place.

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