Nursing Elites

1. Incidences of child abuse appear to be higher in the African-American community and might be explained by:

• A. the increased number of single-parent households in African-American communities
• B. more single-parent households in African-American communities
• C. stricter child-rearing practices in African-American households
• D. a higher occurrence of rage in African Americans

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Child abuse is often associated with lower socioeconomic status and single-parent households due to increased stress and fewer support systems. Choice A is correct as single-parent households can face more challenges leading to a higher risk of child abuse. Choice B is the correct answer as it aligns with the risk factors associated with child abuse. Choice C is incorrect because there is no direct correlation between stricter child-rearing practices and child abuse rates. Choice D is incorrect because attributing child abuse to a higher occurrence of rage in African Americans is a stereotype and lacks evidence.

2. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for removal of a pituitary tumor using the transsphenoidal approach. The nurse should be particularly alert for:

• A. Nasal congestion
• B. Abdominal tenderness
• C. Muscle tetany
• D. Oliguria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the removal of a pituitary tumor using the transsphenoidal approach, nasal congestion is a significant concern as it can further obstruct the airway. This can be due to mucosal swelling, bleeding, or edema resulting from the surgery. Nasal congestion requires immediate attention to prevent airway compromise. Abdominal tenderness, muscle tetany, and oliguria are not directly associated with the pituitary gland or the transsphenoidal approach, making them incorrect choices. Abdominal tenderness is more common in abdominal or pelvic surgeries due to intra-abdominal issues. Muscle tetany is related to electrolyte imbalances or neuromuscular disorders, not specific to pituitary surgery. Oliguria is a concern in renal-related conditions, not typically in pituitary tumor surgeries.

3. In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's

• A. feelings about what has been described.
• B. thoughts about what has been described.
• C. possible solutions to the problem.
• D. intent in sharing the description.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse follows a structured approach, starting with encouraging the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client's thoughts about what has been described. This step helps gather more assessment data and understand how the client interprets the situation. Asking about feelings, exploring possible solutions, and understanding the client's intent in sharing the description are more complex processes that come later in the assessment. Therefore, the correct next step after describing behaviors and situations is to inquire about the client's thoughts.

4. While the client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which lab test should be evaluated?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Creatinine
• C. Blood glucose
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial as TPN solutions contain high amounts of glucose. This monitoring helps prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Evaluating hemoglobin (choice A) is not directly related to TPN administration. Creatinine (choice B) is more relevant for assessing kidney function. White blood cell count (choice D) is important for evaluating immune function and infection, but not specifically tied to TPN administration.

5. When the nurse who was not promoted first read the memo and learned that the other nurse had received the promotion, she left the room in tears. This behavior is an example of:

• A. conversion.
• B. regression
• C. introjection.
• D. rationalization

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Crying is a regressive behavior. The ego returned to an earlier, comforting, and less-mature way of behaving in the face of disappointment. Regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development to cope with stress or conflict. In this scenario, the nurse regressed to a childlike state by crying when faced with the disappointment of not getting the promotion, demonstrating regression as a defense mechanism. Conversion involves transforming anxiety into a physical symptom. Introjection involves unconsciously identifying intensely with another person. Rationalization involves unconsciously creating acceptable explanations to justify unacceptable ideas, actions, or feelings. Therefore, the correct answer is regression as it aligns with the nurse's behavior of regressing to a childlike state by crying due to the disappointment of not receiving the promotion.

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