Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with cerebral palsy. The nurse should provide frequent rest periods because:

• A. Grimacing and writhing movements decrease with relaxation and rest.
• B. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes become more active with rest.
• C. Stretch reflexes are increased with rest.
• D. Fine motor movements are improved.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Frequent rest periods help to relax tense muscles and preserve energy in clients with cerebral palsy. This can lead to a decrease in grimacing and writhing movements, as relaxation and rest help to alleviate muscle tension. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they provide inaccurate information. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes do not become more active with rest; stretch reflexes are not increased with rest in cerebral palsy patients, and fine motor movements are not necessarily improved solely by rest.

2. A 24-year-old female client is scheduled for surgery in the morning. What is the primary responsibility of the nurse?

• A. Taking the vital signs
• B. Obtaining the permit
• C. Explaining the procedure
• D. Checking the lab work

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary responsibility of the nurse is to take the vital signs before any surgery. This action helps assess the client's baseline condition and identify any abnormalities that need addressing before the procedure. Obtaining the permit (choice B) is typically handled by administrative staff, explaining the procedure (choice C) is usually done by the healthcare provider performing the surgery, and checking the lab work (choice D) is often part of the pre-operative assessment conducted by the healthcare provider. Therefore, in this context, these actions are not the primary responsibility of the nurse.

3. The nurse is assisting the RN with discharge instructions for a client with an implantable defibrillator. What discharge instruction is essential?

• A. "You can eat food prepared in a microwave."?
• B. "You should avoid moving the shoulder on the side of the defibrillator site for 6 weeks."?
• C. "You should use your cellphone on your right side."?
• D. "You will be able to fly on a commercial airliner with the defibrillator in place."?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The essential discharge instruction for a client with an implantable defibrillator is to use any battery-operated machinery on the opposite side, including cellphones. This is to prevent interference with the device. Additionally, the client should monitor their pulse rate and report any dizziness or fainting, which could indicate issues with the defibrillator. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because clients with implantable defibrillators can eat food prepared in the microwave, move their shoulder on the affected side after the initial healing period, and are allowed to fly on commercial airliners with the defibrillator in place.

4. The nurse is developing a care plan for a client with severe anxiety. An appropriate outcome for the client is that within 4 days the client should:

• A. Have decreased anxiety.
• B. Talk to the nurse for 10 minutes.
• C. Sit quietly for 30 minutes.
• D. Develop an adaptive coping mechanism.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When developing outcome criteria for a client with severe anxiety, it is crucial for the goals to be specific, measurable, and realistic. In this scenario, the most appropriate outcome is for the client to talk to the nurse for 10 minutes within 4 days. This goal is specific (talking for a defined duration), measurable (10 minutes), and realistic given the client's condition. Expecting a severely anxious client to sit quietly for 30 minutes is not realistic and may even exacerbate their anxiety. While developing an adaptive coping mechanism is important, it is a broader long-term goal and may not be achievable within the specified timeframe. Having decreased anxiety is a desirable outcome, but it lacks specificity and measurability, making it less suitable as an immediate goal.

5. Several clients are admitted to the emergency room following a three-car vehicle accident. Which clients can be assigned to share a room in the emergency department during the disaster?

• A. The schizophrenic client experiencing visual and auditory hallucinations and the client with ulcerative colitis
• B. The client who is 6 months pregnant with abdominal pain and the client with facial lacerations and a broken arm
• C. A child with fixed and dilated pupils and his parents, and the client with a frontal head injury
• D. The client who arrives with a large puncture wound to the abdomen and the client with chest pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assign the client who is 6 months pregnant with abdominal pain and the client with facial lacerations and a broken arm to share a room. The pregnant client needs close monitoring due to the abdominal pain, and the client with facial lacerations and a broken arm requires immediate attention for wound care and possible fracture management. Choice A should not be assigned together as the schizophrenic client experiencing visual and auditory hallucinations needs a separate room for privacy and safety, and the client with ulcerative colitis may require isolation due to the risk of infection. Choice C is incorrect because the child with fixed and dilated pupils is likely in a critical condition and should be in a private room with parents, while the client with a frontal head injury needs a separate room for focused care. Choice D is also incorrect as the client with a large puncture wound to the abdomen needs immediate attention in a separate room, and the client with chest pain requires evaluation and monitoring in a separate setting as well.

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