Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with cerebral palsy. The nurse should provide frequent rest periods because:

• A. Grimacing and writhing movements decrease with relaxation and rest.
• B. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes become more active with rest.
• C. Stretch reflexes are increased with rest.
• D. Fine motor movements are improved.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Frequent rest periods help to relax tense muscles and preserve energy in clients with cerebral palsy. This can lead to a decrease in grimacing and writhing movements, as relaxation and rest help to alleviate muscle tension. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they provide inaccurate information. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes do not become more active with rest; stretch reflexes are not increased with rest in cerebral palsy patients, and fine motor movements are not necessarily improved solely by rest.

2. The nurse is assigning staff for the day. Which assignment should be given to the nursing assistant?

• A. Taking the vital signs of the 5-month-old with bronchiolitis
• B. Taking the vital signs of the 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy
• C. Administering medication to the 2-year-old with periorbital cellulitis
• D. Adjusting the traction of the 1-year-old with a fractured tibia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate assignment for a nursing assistant is to take the vital signs of a stable patient. A 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy is considered stable, and routine vital signs monitoring can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant. Clients with bronchiolitis, periorbital cellulitis, and a fractured tibia require more specialized care and assessment by a licensed nurse. Bronchiolitis involves an airway alteration, periorbital cellulitis indicates an infection, and a fractured tibia may raise concerns of abuse. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect for delegation to a nursing assistant.

3. Which client can best be assigned to the newly licensed practical nurse?

• A. The client receiving chemotherapy
• B. The client post-coronary bypass
• C. The client with a TURP
• D. The client with diverticulitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best client to assign to the newly licensed nurse is the most stable client. In this case, the client with diverticulitis is the most stable among the options provided. Clients receiving chemotherapy and those post-coronary bypass require specialized care and attention, making them unsuitable for a newly licensed nurse. The client with a TURP may be at risk of bleeding, needing a nurse experienced in managing such complications. Therefore, the client with diverticulitis is the most appropriate choice for the newly licensed practical nurse.

4. A man expresses surprise that his wife has become very withdrawn during hospitalization for pneumonia. Which response helps the husband understand how some people cope with hospitalization?

• A. "Hospitalization might cause a crisis. Has your wife had to cope with problems before this?"?
• B. "Some people react that way. She will be more talkative when she feels better."?
• C. "Your wife might be feeling concern that she cannot fulfill her normal roles."?
• D. "This is typical behavior for someone who is as ill as your wife."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response acknowledges that hospitalization can lead to a crisis for both patients and their families. By asking if the wife has coped with problems before, it opens up a dialogue about her coping mechanisms and past experiences. This can help the husband understand his wife's current behavior better and provide valuable insights. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the potential crisis that hospitalization can cause or inquire about the wife's coping strategies, making them less effective responses.

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

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