NCLEX-PN
Kaplan NCLEX Question of The Day
1. The nurse is caring for a client admitted with Class III/IV Pulmonary Hypertension. The nurse explains to the client that Lanoxin is being administered to the client in order to:
- A. Manage peripheral edema
- B. Improve right ventricular function
- C. Increase pulmonary pressure
- D. Constrict the pulmonary vessels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to improve right ventricular function. Lanoxin, also known as digoxin, is a cardiac glycoside that works by slowing the heart rate and increasing myocardial contractility, especially in the ventricles. This action helps improve the efficiency of the heart's pumping function, particularly the right ventricle in conditions like pulmonary hypertension. Choice A, managing peripheral edema, is not directly related to Lanoxin's mechanism of action. Choice C, increasing pulmonary pressure, is incorrect as Lanoxin is not used to increase pressure in the pulmonary circulation. Choice D, constricting the pulmonary vessels, is incorrect as Lanoxin does not cause vasoconstriction in the pulmonary vessels but rather acts on the heart's contractility.
2. When discussing possible complications of pregnancy with a client, the nurse should explain that all of the following are symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the following is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy?
- A. low back pain
- B. urinary frequency
- C. GI distress
- D. malaise
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Urinary frequency is least indicative of UTI during pregnancy. It is a common minor discomfort of pregnancy caused by pressure of the growing uterus on the bladder. As the uterus rises in the second trimester, there are usually no problems. Frequency may return in the third trimester when the uterus drops into the pelvic cavity. UTI symptoms include low back pain, suprapubic discomfort, and malaise, and are confirmed by laboratory findings. Low back pain, GI distress, and malaise are more closely associated with UTI during pregnancy compared to urinary frequency.
3. What happens if folic acid is administered to treat anemia without determining its underlying cause?
- A. Erythropoiesis is inhibited
- B. Excessive levels of folic acid might accumulate, causing toxicity
- C. The symptoms of pernicious anemia might be masked, delaying treatment
- D. Intrinsic factor is destroyed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When folic acid is given without determining the underlying cause of anemia, the symptoms of pernicious anemia may be masked, potentially delaying the correct treatment. Folic acid alone does not protect against the central nervous system changes seen in pernicious anemia, which are related to Vitamin B12 deficiency. Folic acid and Vitamin B12 are both crucial for cell growth and division. Administering folic acid without knowing the specific type of anemia could lead to a delay in addressing the root cause. Option A is incorrect because folic acid is essential for erythropoiesis, the production of red blood cells. Option B is incorrect as excessive folic acid can cause toxicity, but it is not the primary concern in this context. Option D is incorrect because folic acid treatment for anemia does not directly impact intrinsic factor, which is related to Vitamin B12 absorption.
4. The client is cared for by a nurse and calls for the nurse to come to the room, expressing feeling unwell. The client's vital signs are BP: 130/88, HR: 102, RR: 28. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Administer PRN anxiolytic
- B. Administer Antibiotics
- C. Reassure the client that everything is okay and offer food and beverage
- D. Determine the Glasgow Coma Scale
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! The client's vital signs indicate tachycardia and tachypnea, which could be indicative of hypoxia. Administering a PRN anxiolytic would not address the underlying issue and could mask deterioration. Reassuring the client without further assessment or intervention could lead to a delay in appropriate care if there is a serious underlying cause for the symptoms. Determining the Glasgow Coma Scale is not relevant to the client's presenting symptoms of feeling unwell and suspecting something is wrong, coupled with abnormal vital signs.
5. A client receiving drug therapy with furosemide and digitalis requires careful observation and care. In planning care for this client, the nurse should recognize that which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to occur?
- A. hyperkalemia
- B. hypernatremia
- C. hypokalemia
- D. hypomagnesemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client is receiving drug therapy with furosemide and digitalis, the nurse should anticipate the development of hypokalemia due to the potassium-wasting effects of furosemide. Hypokalemia can potentiate digitalis toxicity. While hyperkalemia is a concern with some medications, it is not typically associated with furosemide and digitalis. Furosemide can lead to hyponatremia, not hypernatremia, due to its diuretic effect. Hypomagnesemia, though a possible imbalance, is not the most likely to occur in this scenario as furosemide and digitalis are more commonly associated with hypokalemia.
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