Nursing Elites

1. The LPN is preparing to ambulate a client post total knee replacement. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform prior to ambulating the client?

• A. Assist the client to a sitting position at the edge of the bed
• B. Have the client march in place for 30 seconds
• C. Have the client raise his arms above his head
• D. Ask the client the last time he fell

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to perform before ambulating a client post total knee replacement is to assist the client to a sitting position at the edge of the bed. This step is crucial to prevent orthostatic hypotension and ensure the client is ready to stand and walk safely. Having the client march in place or raise his arms above his head are not necessary preparations for ambulation. While knowing about the client's fall history is important for safety reasons, it is not the priority action immediately before ambulating the client.

2. In alcoholics with anemia:

• A. Pernicious anemia is more common than folic acid deficiency.
• B. Iron deficiency and folic acid deficiency can coexist.
• C. The alcohol interferes with iron absorption.
• D. Oral vitamin replacement is contraindicated.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In alcoholics with anemia, iron deficiency and folic acid deficiency can coexist due to poor dietary intake and malabsorption issues associated with chronic alcohol consumption. Pernicious anemia, primarily related to vitamin B12 deficiency, is not commonly seen in alcoholics. While alcohol can interfere with iron absorption, it is not the sole factor contributing to anemia in alcoholics. Oral vitamin replacement is not contraindicated in alcoholics with anemia; however, it may be less effective due to absorption issues related to alcohol consumption.

3. A patient has fallen off a bicycle and fractured the head of the proximal fibula. A cast was placed on the patient's lower extremity. Which of the following is the most probable result of the fall?

• A. Peroneal nerve injury
• B. Tibial nerve injury
• C. Sciatic nerve injury
• D. Femoral nerve injury

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is peroneal nerve injury. The head of the proximal fibula is in close proximity to the peroneal nerve, making it susceptible to injury when there is a fracture. The peroneal nerve runs along the fibula and can be affected by trauma to this area. Choice B, tibial nerve injury, is incorrect as the fracture site is closer to the peroneal nerve, not the tibial nerve. Choice C, sciatic nerve injury, is incorrect as the injury is more localized to the fibular head area where the peroneal nerve is affected. Choice D, femoral nerve injury, is incorrect as the femoral nerve is not immediately adjacent to the proximal fibula and is not typically affected by this type of injury.

4. What must the evening nurse do to facilitate the client's ECT treatment the next morning?

• A. Ensure the patient signs an informed consent form
• B. Administer evening medications
• C. Ensure the patient gets a good night's sleep
• D. Provide dietary restrictions as per ECT protocol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) treatment, obtaining informed consent is crucial before the procedure. This ensures the patient is aware of the risks, benefits, and alternatives to the treatment. Administering medications, ensuring rest, and dietary restrictions are important but not directly related to the specific requirement of obtaining informed consent for ECT. The correct answer, ensuring the patient signs an informed consent form, is essential to uphold the patient's autonomy and ensure they have the necessary information to make an informed decision about their treatment.

5. Why is starting a low CHO diet a contraindication for a client with renal insufficiency?

• A. As long as the client eats a minimum of 30g of CHO/day, there should be no problem.
• B. The client's clinical condition is a contraindication to starting a low CHO diet.
• C. Calcium supplements should be utilized to prevent the development of osteoporosis while on a low CHO diet.
• D. As long as the client eats foods that are high biologic protein sources, a low CHO diet can be followed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with renal insufficiency should not start a low CHO diet because it could result in an increased renal solute load. Clients with renal or liver disease require protein control in their diet to prevent complications. Proteins used must be of high biologic value, and protein intake is usually weight-based. Protein levels may be adjusted based on the client's clinical condition. A minimum level of carbohydrates is needed in the diet to spare protein. Vitamin and mineral supplements might be needed for clients with liver failure. The dietician plays a crucial role in calculating specific nutrient requirements for these clients and monitoring outcomes in conjunction with the healthcare team. Choice A is incorrect because simply consuming a minimum amount of carbohydrates does not address the issue of increased renal solute load. Choice C is incorrect as calcium supplements are not the primary concern when considering a low CHO diet for a client with renal insufficiency. Choice D is incorrect as the focus should be on the contraindication of a low CHO diet for a client with renal insufficiency rather than just high biologic protein sources.

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