NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. The licensed practical nurse assigned to the postpartum unit is preparing to administer Rhogam to a postpartum client. Which woman is not a candidate for RhoGam?
- A. A gravida IV para 3 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
- B. A gravida I para 1 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
- C. A gravida II para 0 that is Rh negative admitted after a stillbirth delivery
- D. A gravida IV para 2 that is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The mothers in answers A, B, and C all require RhoGam as they are Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby or have experienced a stillbirth delivery, making them candidates for RhoGam injection. The mother in answer D is the only one who does not require Rhogam because she is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby, eliminating the need for RhoGam administration.
2. The client is visiting a home health client with osteoporosis. The client has a new prescription for alendronate (Fosamax). Which instruction should be given to the client?
- A. Rest in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes
- B. Avoid rapid movements after taking the medication
- C. Take the medication with water only
- D. Allow at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and taking other medications
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax), instructing them to avoid rapid movements after taking the medication is crucial to prevent esophageal irritation. Resting in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes (choice A) is not necessary and can increase the risk of side effects. While taking the medication with water only (choice C) is generally recommended, the key instruction to prevent esophageal irritation is to avoid rapid movements. Allowing at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and other medications (choice D) is not specifically related to the administration of alendronate and is not the primary concern when giving instructions to the client.
3. The nurse is assigning staff for the day. Which assignment should be given to the nursing assistant?
- A. Taking the vital signs of the 5-month-old with bronchiolitis
- B. Taking the vital signs of the 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy
- C. Administering medication to the 2-year-old with periorbital cellulitis
- D. Adjusting the traction of the 1-year-old with a fractured tibia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate assignment for a nursing assistant is to take the vital signs of a stable patient. A 10-year-old with a 2-day postappendectomy is considered stable, and routine vital signs monitoring can be safely delegated to a nursing assistant. Clients with bronchiolitis, periorbital cellulitis, and a fractured tibia require more specialized care and assessment by a licensed nurse. Bronchiolitis involves an airway alteration, periorbital cellulitis indicates an infection, and a fractured tibia may raise concerns of abuse. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect for delegation to a nursing assistant.
4. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan)
- B. labetalol (Normodyne)
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
- D. thiothixene (Navane)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.
5. When providing culturally competent care to a couple from the Philippines living in the United States who are expecting their first child, what should the nurse do first?
- A. review their own cultural beliefs and biases
- B. respectfully request that the couple only use medically approved health care providers
- C. understand the clients' need to learn the accepted medical practices of their new country
- D. study family dynamics to comprehend the male and female gender roles in the clients' culture
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When providing culturally competent care, the nurse's initial step is to reflect on and understand their own cultural beliefs and biases. By doing so, the nurse can approach the care of the couple from the Philippines with sensitivity and respect. This self-awareness helps the nurse recognize potential differences in beliefs and values, fostering effective communication and care. Option B is incorrect because it does not address the nurse's need for self-reflection. Option C is incorrect as it focuses on the clients adapting to the new country's practices rather than the nurse understanding the clients' existing beliefs. Option D is incorrect as it pertains to family dynamics and gender roles rather than the nurse's self-awareness.
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