NCLEX-PN
Nclex Practice Questions 2024
1. The licensed practical nurse assigned to the postpartum unit is preparing to administer Rhogam to a postpartum client. Which woman is not a candidate for RhoGam?
- A. A gravida IV para 3 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
- B. A gravida I para 1 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
- C. A gravida II para 0 that is Rh negative admitted after a stillbirth delivery
- D. A gravida IV para 2 that is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The mothers in answers A, B, and C all require RhoGam as they are Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby or have experienced a stillbirth delivery, making them candidates for RhoGam injection. The mother in answer D is the only one who does not require Rhogam because she is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby, eliminating the need for RhoGam administration.
2. The physician prescribes captopril (Capoten) 25mg po tid for the client with hypertension. Which of the following adverse reactions can occur with administration of Capoten?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Persistent cough
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A persistent cough might be related to an adverse reaction to captopril (Capoten). Tinnitus (choice A) and diarrhea (choice D) are not commonly associated adverse reactions of captopril. Muscle weakness (choice C) might occur initially but is not considered a common adverse effect of captopril. Therefore, the correct answer is B, persistent cough, as it is a known adverse reaction to captopril.
3. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:
- A. administer both medications simultaneously.
- B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them.
- C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug.
- D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.
4. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment is most crucial during the preoperative period?
- A. Assessment of the client's level of anxiety
- B. Evaluation of the client's exercise tolerance
- C. Identification of peripheral pulses
- D. Assessment of bowel sounds and activity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial assessment during the preoperative period for a client with a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm scheduled for surgical repair is the identification of peripheral pulses. During surgery, the aorta will be clamped, potentially affecting blood circulation to the kidneys and lower extremities. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to assess peripheral pulses and monitor the return of circulation to the lower extremities postoperatively. Assessing the client's level of anxiety (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as ensuring adequate circulation. Evaluating exercise tolerance (Choice B) is not recommended preoperatively for this situation. Assessing bowel sounds and activity (Choice D) is of lesser concern compared to the critical need to monitor peripheral circulation.
5. A 10-month-old child is brought to the Emergency Department because he is difficult to awaken. The nurse notes bruises on both upper arms. These findings are most consistent with:
- A. wearing clothing that is too small for the child.
- B. the child being shaken.
- C. falling while learning to walk.
- D. parents trying to awaken the child.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'the child being shaken.' In cases of suspected child abuse, bruises on both upper arms can be indicative of a child being shaken, as children who are shaken are frequently grasped by both upper arms. The presentation of a 10-month-old child being difficult to awaken, along with bruises on the upper arms, raises concern for inflicted injury. Symptoms of brain injury associated with shaking include a decreased level of consciousness. Choices A, C, and D are less likely in this scenario as they do not align with the concerning signs of suspected abuse indicated by the bruises and the child's altered level of consciousness.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access