a client visits the clinic after the death of a parent which statement made by the clients sister signifies abnormal grieving
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NCLEX-PN

Nclex 2024 Questions

1. A client visits the clinic after the death of a parent. Which statement made by the client's sister signifies abnormal grieving?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Abnormal grieving is often characterized by a lack of sadness or acknowledgment of the loss. In this scenario, the statement 'Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened' indicates abnormal grieving as it suggests a lack of emotional response or denial of the death. On the other hand, choices A, B, and C all describe normal grieving reactions: crying episodes, selective memory of the deceased, and feelings of longing after the funeral. These responses are typical in the grieving process. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer, highlighting a potential abnormality in the grieving process.

2. A family member of a client with a diagnosis of Schizophrenia asks about the prognosis. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that schizophrenia:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'is a chronic, deteriorating disease with periods of remission.' While choices A, C, and D contain some truths about schizophrenia, they do not directly address the prognosis aspect of the question. Schizophrenia can affect both men and women equally, is typically diagnosed in early adulthood, and does not have a known protective hormone effect that delays diagnosis. Choice B accurately reflects the chronic and fluctuating nature of the disease, which is essential for understanding its long-term course.

3. The physician has ordered sodium warfarin (Coumadin) for the client with thrombophlebitis. The order should be entered to administer the medication at:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sodium warfarin is typically administered in the late afternoon, around 1700 hours. This timing allows for accurate bleeding times to be drawn in the morning. Administering it at 0900 (choice A) would not align with this schedule and may affect the monitoring of bleeding times. Choice B (1200) is midday, which is not the recommended time for sodium warfarin administration. Choice D (2100) is in the evening, which is also not ideal. Therefore, the correct time for administering sodium warfarin is 1700 (choice C).

4. The doctor orders 2% nitroglycerin ointment in a 1-inch dose every 12 hours. Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment includes:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment involves rotating application sites to prevent skin irritation. It should be applied to the back and upper arms, not restricted to the chest, making option B incorrect. Rubbing it into the skin, as indicated in option C, is not recommended for nitroglycerin ointment as it can lead to faster absorption and potential side effects. The correct way is to cover it with a thin paper dressing, not gauze as mentioned in option D, to ensure proper absorption and prevent the medication from evaporating too quickly.

5. A man reports his wife is constantly cleaning, which interferes with family life. Friends avoid visiting due to feeling uncomfortable. The husband finds her cleaning even at night. The nurse should consult and recommend the husband help with therapy by:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease the stimuli in the home. The wife's behavior suggests obsessive-compulsive disorder, an anxiety disorder. By reducing stimuli in the environment, such as clutter or triggers that prompt cleaning, it helps in managing the condition and promoting a calmer atmosphere. Option A is incorrect as directly telling the wife to stop can escalate her anxiety. Option B is not the priority initially, as addressing the root cause is more crucial. Option D may reinforce the behavior rather than addressing the underlying issue.

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