NCLEX-PN
Nclex 2024 Questions
1. A client visits the clinic after the death of a parent. Which statement made by the client's sister signifies abnormal grieving?
- A. "My sister still has episodes of crying, and it's been 3 months since Daddy died."?
- B. "Sally seems to have forgotten the bad things that Daddy did in his lifetime."?
- C. "She really had a hard time after Daddy's funeral. She said that she had a sense of longing."?
- D. "Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abnormal grieving is often characterized by a lack of sadness or acknowledgment of the loss. In this scenario, the statement 'Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened' indicates abnormal grieving as it suggests a lack of emotional response or denial of the death. On the other hand, choices A, B, and C all describe normal grieving reactions: crying episodes, selective memory of the deceased, and feelings of longing after the funeral. These responses are typical in the grieving process. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer, highlighting a potential abnormality in the grieving process.
2. The nurse who was not promoted then went to the utility room and slammed several cupboard doors while looking for Kleenex. This behavior exemplifies:
- A. displacement.
- B. sublimation
- C. conversion.
- D. reaction formation.
Correct answer: A.
Rationale: Displacement unconsciously transfers emotions associated with a person, object, or situation to another less threatening person, object, or situation. In this scenario, the nurse slammed doors instead of expressing anger towards the promoted nurse or the administrator who made the promotion decision. Sublimation is the unconscious process of substituting constructive activity for unacceptable impulses. Since slamming cupboard doors is not a constructive activity, this choice is incorrect. Conversion involves transforming anxiety into physical symptoms, which is not demonstrated in the given behavior. Reaction formation keeps unacceptable feelings or behaviors out of awareness by displaying the opposite feeling or behavior, which is not the case here.
3. Which of the following roommates would be best for the client newly admitted with gastric resection?
- A. A client with Crohn's disease
- B. A client with pneumonia
- C. A client with gastritis
- D. A client with phlebitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most suitable roommate for the client newly admitted with gastric resection is the client with phlebitis. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the blood vessel and is not infectious, making it a safer option for the surgical client. Crohn's disease clients (choice A) have frequent stools that might spread infections to the surgical client, posing a risk. A client with pneumonia (choice B) is coughing, which can disturb the gastric client's recovery. Additionally, a client with gastritis (choice C) who is vomiting and experiencing diarrhea would also not be an ideal roommate for a client recovering from gastric resection.
4. The new mother asks why her baby has lost weight since he was born. The best explanation of the weight loss is:
- A. The baby is dehydrated due to polyuria.
- B. The baby is hypoglycemic due to lack of glucose.
- C. The baby is allergic to the formula the mother is giving him.
- D. The baby can lose up to 10% of weight due to meconium stool, loss of extracellular fluid, and initiation of breastfeeding.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After birth, newborns can lose weight due to meconium stool, loss of extracellular fluid, and the initiation of breastfeeding. This weight loss is a normal and expected physiological process, and infants can lose up to 10% of their birth weight during this period. There is no indication of dehydration (polyuria), hypoglycemia (lack of glucose), or allergy to the formula as reasons for weight loss in newborns. Therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect. Answer D provides the most accurate explanation for the observed weight loss in the newborn.
5. A 20-year-old female has a prescription for tetracycline. While teaching the client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the client is also taking Ortho-Novum oral contraceptive pills. Which instructions should be included in the teaching plan?
- A. The oral contraceptives will decrease the effectiveness of the tetracycline.
- B. Nausea often results from taking oral contraceptives and antibiotics.
- C. Toxicity can result when taking these two medications together.
- D. Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so the client should use an alternate method of birth control.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When antibiotics and oral contraceptives are taken together, the effectiveness of the oral contraceptives can be reduced, increasing the risk of pregnancy. Therefore, it is important to advise the client to use an alternate method of birth control to prevent unintended pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no evidence to suggest that oral contraceptives decrease the effectiveness of tetracycline, cause nausea, or result in toxicity when taken with antibiotics.
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