Nursing Elites

1. Who may legally give informed consent?

• A. an 86-year-old male with advanced Alzheimer's disease
• B. a 14-year-old girl needing an appendectomy who is not an emancipated minor
• C. a 14-year-old girl needing an appendectomy who is not an emancipated minor
• D. a 6-month-old baby needing bowel surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a 14-year-old girl needing an appendectomy who is not an emancipated minor. Informed consent can be given by individuals who are competent and not minors. Minors are generally unable to provide informed consent unless they are emancipated. Choice A is incorrect because an 86-year-old male with advanced Alzheimer's disease is considered incompetent to make decisions. Choice D is incorrect because a 6-month-old baby is unable to provide consent. Emancipated minors are an exception to the minor rule, as they can provide consent for their own treatment.

2. Two staff nurses were considered for promotion to head nurse. The promotion is announced via a memo on the unit bulletin board. The nurse who was not promoted tells a friend, "Oh, well, I really didn't want the job anyway."? This is an example of:

• A. rationalization.
• B. denial.
• C. projection.
• D. compensation.

Correct answer: A.

Rationale: This is an example of rationalization, specifically the sour grapes form, where the individual convinces themselves that they didn't want something after realizing they couldn't have it. Rationalization is an unconscious form of self-deception involving making excuses. In this scenario, the nurse is rationalizing her disappointment by downplaying her desire for the promotion. Denial involves ignoring the existence of a situation, which is not demonstrated here. Projection involves blaming others unconsciously, which is also not present in this situation. Compensation is an attempt to offset a perceived weakness by emphasizing a strong point, which is not shown in the nurse's response.

3. In the United States, several definitions of death are currently being used. The definition that uses apnea testing and pupillary responses to light is termed:

• A. whole brain death.
• B. heart-lung death.
• C. circulatory death.
• D. higher brain death.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'whole brain death.' Most protocols for determining whole brain death require two separate clinical examinations, including the induction of painful stimuli, pupillary responses to light, oculovestibular testing, and apnea testing. This comprehensive approach ensures that all functions of the brain, including the brainstem, are evaluated to confirm the absence of brain function. Choices B and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the specific tests required for determining whole brain death. Choice C, 'circulatory death,' does not involve the evaluation of brain function and is not a current definition of death in the United States.

4. Which action by the novice nurse indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. The nurse fails to wear gloves when removing a dressing.
• B. The nurse applies an oxygen saturation monitor to the earlobe.
• C. The nurse elevates the head of the bed to check blood pressure.
• D. The nurse places the extremity in a dependent position to acquire a peripheral blood sample.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The novice nurse failing to wear gloves when removing a dressing indicates a need for further teaching to emphasize infection control practices. This action can lead to the spread of infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they demonstrate proper nursing skills and techniques. Applying an oxygen saturation monitor to the earlobe, elevating the head of the bed to check blood pressure, and placing the extremity in a dependent position to acquire a peripheral blood sample all reflect understanding of correct procedures in patient care.

5. Upon arrival at the emergency room, the client presents with severe burns to the left arm, hands, face, and neck. What action should take priority?

• A. Starting an IV
• B. Applying oxygen
• C. Obtaining blood gases
• D. Medicating the client for pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with severe burns to the face and neck, airway assessment and supplemental oxygen are crucial. Therefore, applying oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation for the client. This intervention takes precedence over other actions to stabilize the client's condition. Starting an IV for fluid resuscitation is the next appropriate step following ensuring oxygenation (Choice A). While pain management is important, it is a secondary priority after ensuring oxygenation and fluid resuscitation, making medicating the client for pain a later intervention (Choice D). Obtaining blood gases (Choice C) is not the immediate priority in this scenario and would typically be ordered by the healthcare provider based on the client's condition and response to initial interventions.

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