Nursing Elites

1. What can the nurse instruct the mother of a teething 9-month-old infant to relieve discomfort?

• A. Rub the infant's gums with baby aspirin dissolved in water.
• B. Obtain an over-the-counter (OTC) topical medication for gum pain relief.
• C. Schedule an appointment with a dentist for a dental evaluation.
• D. Give the infant cool liquids or a Popsicle and hard foods such as dry toast.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Teething in infants can cause discomfort, but it is a normal process. Symptoms may include nighttime awakening, daytime restlessness, excess drooling, and temporary loss of appetite. The recommended approach to relieve teething discomfort includes providing cool liquids, a Popsicle, or hard foods like dry toast for chewing. These items can help soothe the infant's gums. Rubbing the gums with baby aspirin dissolved in water is not recommended as it can be harmful. OTC topical medications are unnecessary for teething discomfort. Scheduling a dental evaluation is not required solely for teething. It's important to avoid home remedies like baby aspirin and opt for safer options like cool liquids. If necessary, acetaminophen (Tylenol) can be used under healthcare provider guidance to alleviate discomfort.

2. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:

• A. administer both medications simultaneously.
• B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them.
• C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug.
• D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.

3. A 6-month-old client is admitted with possible intussusception. Which question during the nursing history is least helpful in obtaining information regarding this diagnosis?

• A. "Tell me about his pain."?
• B. "What does his vomit look like?"?
• C. "Describe his usual diet."?
• D. "Have you noticed changes in his abdominal size?"?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The least helpful question in obtaining information regarding intussusception is "Describe his usual diet."? This question is least relevant to the specific symptoms and presentation of intussusception. Choices A, B, and D are more directly related to symptoms commonly associated with intussusception and can provide important diagnostic clues. Asking about pain, vomit appearance, and changes in abdominal size can help in assessing the severity and progression of the condition, making them more crucial questions to ask in this scenario. Pain is a cardinal symptom of intussusception, changes in vomit appearance may indicate gastrointestinal issues, and alterations in abdominal size can signify the presence of a mass or obstruction, all of which are pertinent in diagnosing and managing intussusception.

4. Six hours after birth, the infant is found to have an area of swelling over the right parietal area that does not cross the suture line. The nurse should chart this finding as:

• A. A cephalohematoma
• B. Molding
• C. Subdural hematoma
• D. Caput succedaneum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, a cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is an area of bleeding outside the cranium but beneath the periosteum, typically not crossing the suture line. Answer B, molding, is the overlapping of the bones of the cranium and does not involve bleeding, making it an incorrect choice. Answer C, a subdural hematoma, involves intracranial bleeding and is typically diagnosed through imaging studies like a CAT scan or x-ray. Answer D, caput succedaneum, is characterized by edema that crosses the suture line, unlike the described swelling in this case.

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

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