Nursing Elites

1. Upon arrival at the emergency room, the client presents with severe burns to the left arm, hands, face, and neck. What action should take priority?

• A. Starting an IV
• B. Applying oxygen
• C. Obtaining blood gases
• D. Medicating the client for pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with severe burns to the face and neck, airway assessment and supplemental oxygen are crucial. Therefore, applying oxygen is the priority to ensure adequate oxygenation for the client. This intervention takes precedence over other actions to stabilize the client's condition. Starting an IV for fluid resuscitation is the next appropriate step following ensuring oxygenation (Choice A). While pain management is important, it is a secondary priority after ensuring oxygenation and fluid resuscitation, making medicating the client for pain a later intervention (Choice D). Obtaining blood gases (Choice C) is not the immediate priority in this scenario and would typically be ordered by the healthcare provider based on the client's condition and response to initial interventions.

2. In the emergency room, a nurse is responsible for triaging four clients injured in a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following clients should receive priority in care?

• A. A 10-year-old with lacerations on the face
• B. A 15-year-old with sternal bruises
• C. A 34-year-old with a fractured femur
• D. A 50-year-old with a dislocated elbow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The 15-year-old with sternal bruises should receive priority in care as this client might be experiencing airway and oxygenation problems. Airway issues take precedence in triage. The 10-year-old with lacerations on the face, although looking bad, is not in immediate distress. The 34-year-old with a fractured femur should be immobilized but can be seen after the client with sternal bruising. The 50-year-old with a dislocated elbow can also be seen later as dislocated elbows are not life-threatening compared to potential airway compromise.

3. After group therapy, the female victim of intimate partner violence confides to the nurse that she does not feel in any immediate danger. Which of the following statements about victims of domestic violence is true?

• A. Victims of domestic violence are often the best predictors of their risk of harm.
• B. Victims of domestic violence often overestimate their safety risk.
• C. Victims of domestic violence are typically in a state of denial.
• D. Victims of domestic violence know that keeping peace with their partner is the best method of preventing another attack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Victims of domestic violence are often correct at predicting their risk of harm. It is crucial for the nurse to ensure that the client is expressing herself authentically and not downplaying any potential danger. While victims can be insightful about their risk, it's essential to involve proper authorities, such as the police, in situations of intimate partner violence to ensure safety and provide necessary support. Choice B is incorrect because victims may not necessarily overestimate their safety risk. Choice C is incorrect as not all victims are in a state of denial; some may recognize the dangers they face. Choice D is incorrect because victims may not believe that keeping peace with their partner is the best way to prevent future attacks, as each individual's situation and mindset vary.

4. A complication of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is the development of cholestasis. What is this condition?

• A. an inflammatory process of the extrahepatic bile ducts
• B. an arrest of the normal flow of bile
• C. an inflammation of the gallbladder
• D. the formation of gallstones

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cholestasis due to TPN administration is an intrahepatic process that interrupts the normal flow of bile. It is characterized by a reduction or stoppage of bile flow. Choice A, an inflammatory process of the extrahepatic bile ducts, refers to cholangitis, not cholestasis. Choice C, an inflammation of the gallbladder, describes cholecystitis, a different condition. Choice D, the formation of gallstones, is not correct as cholestasis is about the flow of bile, not the formation of gallstones.

5. The licensed practical nurse is observing a graduate nurse as she assesses the central venous pressure. Which observation would indicate that the graduate needs further teaching?

• A. The graduate places the client in a supine position to read the manometer.
• B. The graduate turns the stop-cock to the off position from the IV fluid to the client.
• C. The graduate instructs the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver during the CVP reading.
• D. The graduate notes the level at the top of the meniscus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client should breathe normally during a central venous pressure monitor reading. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is correct if the client can tolerate it. Turning the stop-cock off (Choice B) and noting the level at the top of the meniscus (Choice D) are also correct actions during CVP monitoring. Instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is incorrect as it can artificially alter the CVP reading, indicating a need for further teaching.

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