the client has been on vancomycin for three days which of the following symptoms is least concerning
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1. The client has been on vancomycin for three days. Which of the following symptoms is least concerning?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'headache.' While vancomycin can cause ototoxicity leading to symptoms like tinnitus, vertigo, and nausea, headaches are not typically associated with vancomycin use. Therefore, headache is the least concerning symptom in this scenario. Nausea, vertigo, and tinnitus are more likely to be related to vancomycin ototoxicity and should be closely monitored and reported. Headache is a common symptom that may not be directly linked to vancomycin use.

2. A nurse is conducting a psychosocial assessment of a young adult. Which observations would lead the nurse to determine that the client is demonstrating a sign of emotional health?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the young adult verbalizes satisfaction with friendships. Emotional health in young adults is characterized by various positive signs, including satisfaction with social interactions and friendships. Expressing contentment with friendships indicates a healthy emotional state, fostering positive social connections. On the other hand, sensitivity to criticism, verbalizing unrealistic fears, and expressing disappointment with life are all indicative of emotional distress and potential mental health challenges. These behaviors can hinder social relationships and overall emotional well-being.

3. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.

4. A nurse is preparing to assess a client for the presence of the Tinel sign. Which action does the nurse take to elicit this sign?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Tinel sign is elicited by percussing at the location of the median nerve at the wrist. In carpal tunnel syndrome, this test can produce burning and tingling along the nerve's distribution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Testing for the strength of each muscle joint and checking for repetitive movements in the joints involve different assessments unrelated to the Tinel sign. Asking the client to flex the wrist 90 degrees while holding the hands back to back is associated with the Phalen test, which is another evaluation for carpal tunnel syndrome.

5. The client has an order for a 1,000 mL bag of fluids to be infused over 8 hours. What is the correct rate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the correct infusion rate, divide the total volume of fluids (1,000 mL) by the total infusion time (8 hours), resulting in a rate of 125 mL/hr. This calculation ensures the appropriate administration of fluids over the specified time period. Choice A (100 mL/hr) is incorrect as it does not match the calculated rate based on the given information. Choice B (125 mL/min) is inaccurate because the question specifies the rate in hours, not minutes. Choice D (80 mL/min) is incorrect as it provides the rate in minutes rather than hours, which is the required unit for this scenario.

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