NCLEX-PN
Psychosocial Integrity Nclex PN Questions
1. The best definition of communication is:
- A. the sending and receiving of messages.
- B. the effect of sending verbal messages.
- C. an ongoing, interactive form of transmitting transactions.
- D. the use of message variables to send information.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Communication is defined as an ongoing, interactive form of transmitting transactions. It involves a dynamic process of sending (encoding) and receiving (decoding) messages while being influenced by the experiences and perceptions of both the sender and receiver. This process is interactive and occurs within an environment, shaping individuals' self-concept, identity, and relationships. The correct answer captures the complexity and interactive nature of communication. Choice A, 'the sending and receiving of messages,' is too simplistic and does not encompass the interactive nature of communication. Choice B, 'the effect of sending verbal messages,' focuses solely on verbal communication and overlooks non-verbal forms. Choice D, 'the use of message variables to send information,' emphasizes technical aspects rather than the interactive and transactional nature of communication.
2. A client reports that he is 'talking to the voices.' The nurse observes this behavior. The nurse's next action should be:
- A. touching the client to help him return to reality
- B. leaving the client alone until reality returns
- C. asking the client to describe what is happening
- D. telling the client there are no voices
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client reports talking to voices, the nurse should engage in a gentle touch to help the client return to reality. It is important for the nurse to acknowledge the client's experience and attempt to redirect them gently. Touch can provide grounding and connection. Asking the client to describe what is happening can be overwhelming and might exacerbate the situation. Leaving the client alone may not be safe or therapeutic as the client may need support. Telling the client there are no voices denies their reality and is not helpful in managing their experience.
3. In which age group does the highest incidence of child abuse occur?
- A. Birth-3 years old
- B. 4-6 years old
- C. 6-10 years old
- D. More than 10 years old
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Birth-3 years old.' Children between birth and 3 years of age have the highest rates of victimization (at 16 per 1,000 children). This age group is most vulnerable due to their dependency and inability to report or protect themselves effectively. Child abuse can occur at any age, but statistics show that infants and toddlers are at the highest risk due to their developmental stage and reliance on caregivers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while child abuse can happen at any age, the prevalence is highest among children in the 0-3 age group.
4. A client visits the clinic after the death of a parent. Which statement made by the client's sister signifies abnormal grieving?
- A. "My sister still has episodes of crying, and it's been 3 months since Daddy died."?
- B. "Sally seems to have forgotten the bad things that Daddy did in his lifetime."?
- C. "She really had a hard time after Daddy's funeral. She said that she had a sense of longing."?
- D. "Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abnormal grieving is often characterized by a lack of sadness or acknowledgment of the loss. In this scenario, the statement 'Sally has not been sad at all about Daddy's death. She acts like nothing has happened' indicates abnormal grieving as it suggests a lack of emotional response or denial of the death. On the other hand, choices A, B, and C all describe normal grieving reactions: crying episodes, selective memory of the deceased, and feelings of longing after the funeral. These responses are typical in the grieving process. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer, highlighting a potential abnormality in the grieving process.
5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:
- A. naloxone (Narcan).
- B. labetalol (Normodyne).
- C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
- D. thiothixene (Navane).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.
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