Nursing Elites

1. The best definition of communication is:

• A. the sending and receiving of messages.
• B. the effect of sending verbal messages.
• C. an ongoing, interactive form of transmitting transactions.
• D. the use of message variables to send information.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Communication is defined as an ongoing, interactive form of transmitting transactions. It involves a dynamic process of sending (encoding) and receiving (decoding) messages while being influenced by the experiences and perceptions of both the sender and receiver. This process is interactive and occurs within an environment, shaping individuals' self-concept, identity, and relationships. The correct answer captures the complexity and interactive nature of communication. Choice A, 'the sending and receiving of messages,' is too simplistic and does not encompass the interactive nature of communication. Choice B, 'the effect of sending verbal messages,' focuses solely on verbal communication and overlooks non-verbal forms. Choice D, 'the use of message variables to send information,' emphasizes technical aspects rather than the interactive and transactional nature of communication.

2. Which laboratory test would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction?

• A. AST
• B. Troponin
• C. CK-MB
• D. Myoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: AST, choice A, would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction as it is not specific for this condition. Troponin, CK-MB, and myoglobin (choices B, C, and D) are more specific markers for myocardial infarction. Troponin is considered the gold standard due to its cardiac specificity. CK-MB is also specific to the heart, and its isoenzyme levels elevate post-heart damage. Myoglobin, although elevated in myocardial infarction, is not as specific as troponin and CK-MB and can also increase in conditions like burns and muscle trauma. Therefore, AST is the least effective choice for diagnosing a myocardial infarction.

3. A primary belief of psychiatric mental health nursing is:

• A. Most people have the potential to change and grow.
• B. Every person is worthy of dignity and respect.
• C. Human needs are individual to each person.
• D. Some behaviors have no meaning and cannot be understood.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that every person is worthy of dignity and respect. This is a fundamental principle in psychiatric mental health nursing, emphasizing the importance of treating individuals with dignity and respect regardless of their condition. This belief forms the basis of establishing a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Choice A is a positive belief, but the primary focus in psychiatric mental health nursing is on respecting the worth and dignity of each individual. Choice C is related to understanding individual human needs but does not encompass the core value of dignity and respect. Choice D is incorrect as psychiatric nursing emphasizes the importance of interpreting and understanding all behaviors as meaningful expressions of the client's experience.

4. When a woman is having her first child, she is experiencing which type of crisis event?

• A. situational
• B. maturational
• C. adventitious
• D. reactive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A maturational crisis occurs when an individual reaches a new stage of development, such as becoming a parent for the first time, and needs to develop new coping strategies to adapt to this change. Situational crises (Choice A) arise from external sources, not developmental milestones. Adventitious crises (Choice C) are caused by external events like natural disasters and are not related to personal development stages. Reactive crises (Choice D) are responses to specific stressors and are not associated with developmental milestones like becoming a parent for the first time.

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

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