Nursing Elites

1. The best definition of communication is:

• A. the sending and receiving of messages.
• B. the effect of sending verbal messages.
• C. an ongoing, interactive form of transmitting transactions.
• D. the use of message variables to send information.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Communication is defined as an ongoing, interactive form of transmitting transactions. It involves a dynamic process of sending (encoding) and receiving (decoding) messages while being influenced by the experiences and perceptions of both the sender and receiver. This process is interactive and occurs within an environment, shaping individuals' self-concept, identity, and relationships. The correct answer captures the complexity and interactive nature of communication. Choice A, 'the sending and receiving of messages,' is too simplistic and does not encompass the interactive nature of communication. Choice B, 'the effect of sending verbal messages,' focuses solely on verbal communication and overlooks non-verbal forms. Choice D, 'the use of message variables to send information,' emphasizes technical aspects rather than the interactive and transactional nature of communication.

2. What is the primary goal of family education?

• A. symptom reduction
• B. improved quality of life
• C. increased knowledge about mental illness
• D. improved caregiving skills

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of family education is to improve the quality of life. Family education aims to enhance the overall well-being and functioning of both the individual with the condition and their family members. While increased knowledge about mental illness may be a beneficial outcome, it is not the primary objective of family education. Symptom reduction is more commonly associated with psychoeducation rather than family education. Improving caregiving skills is a component of family education, but the primary focus is on improving the quality of life for everyone involved in the caregiving process.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to assess the acoustic nerve during a neurological examination. To assess this nerve, the provider uses which technique?

• A. Uses a tuning fork
• B. Asks the client to puff out the cheeks
• C. Tests taste perception on the client's tongue
• D. Checks the client's ability to clench the teeth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Testing of cranial nerve VIII (acoustic nerve) involves assessing hearing acuity through techniques like the whispered voice test and tuning fork tests (Weber and Rinne). Using a tuning fork helps determine if sound lateralizes to one ear (Weber) and compares air conduction to bone conduction (Rinne). Asking the client to puff out the cheeks is for cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function evaluation. Testing taste perception on the tongue assesses cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) function. Checking the ability to clench teeth assesses cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) motor function.

4. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. A history of radiation treatment in the neck region
• B. A history of recent orthopedic surgery
• C. A history of minimal physical activity
• D. A history of the client's food intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.

5. The nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be assigned to the pregnant nurse?

• A. The client receiving linear accelerator radiation therapy for lung cancer
• B. The client with a radium implant for cervical cancer
• C. The client who has just been administered soluble brachytherapy for thyroid cancer
• D. The client who returned from placement of iridium seeds for prostate cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pregnant nurse should not be assigned to any client with radioactivity present. The client receiving linear accelerator therapy is the correct choice because the radiation stays in the department, and the client is not radioactive. Choices B, C, and D involve clients who are radioactive or pose a risk due to radioactivity. The client with a radium implant for cervical cancer (choice B) is radioactive, the client who has just been administered soluble brachytherapy for thyroid cancer (choice C) is radioactive for approximately 72 hours, and the client who returned from placement of iridium seeds for prostate cancer (choice D) is also radioactive, especially right after the procedure. These options are not suitable for assignment to the pregnant nurse.

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