Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment is most crucial during the preoperative period?

• A. Assessment of the client's level of anxiety
• B. Evaluation of the client's exercise tolerance
• C. Identification of peripheral pulses
• D. Assessment of bowel sounds and activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial assessment during the preoperative period for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm is the identification of peripheral pulses. This is essential because during surgery, the aorta will be clamped, potentially affecting blood circulation to the kidneys and lower extremities. Monitoring peripheral pulses helps assess circulation to the lower extremities, ensuring adequate perfusion. While assessing the client's anxiety level (choice A) is important, it is not as critical as monitoring peripheral pulses in this case. Evaluating exercise tolerance (choice B) is not typically recommended preoperatively for this specific condition. Assessing bowel sounds and activity (choice D) is also relevant but takes a lower priority compared to identifying peripheral pulses in this scenario.

2. The physician orders the antibiotics ampicillin (Omnipen) and gentamicin (Garamycin) for a newly admitted client with an infection. The nurse should:

• A. administer both medications simultaneously.
• B. give the medications sequentially, and flush well between them.
• C. ask the physician or pharmacy which medication to give first and how long to wait before giving the other drug.
• D. start one medication now and begin the other medication in 2-4 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with an infection needs both antibiotics as soon as possible. However, the pH of ampicillin is 8-10, and the pH of gentamicin is 3-5.5, making them incompatible when given together. Flushing well between drugs is necessary to prevent interaction. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse, not the physician or pharmacy, should determine the correct administration sequence. Consulting with the pharmacist is appropriate if uncertain. Choice D is incorrect because delaying the second medication by several hours can slow the treatment of the client's infection, as both antibiotics are needed promptly to address the infection effectively. Therefore, the correct action is to give the medications sequentially and flush well between them to prevent any potential interactions.

3. The licensed practical nurse assigned to the postpartum unit is preparing to administer Rhogam to a postpartum client. Which woman is not a candidate for RhoGam?

• A. A gravida IV para 3 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
• B. A gravida I para 1 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
• C. A gravida II para 0 that is Rh negative admitted after a stillbirth delivery
• D. A gravida IV para 2 that is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The mothers in answers A, B, and C all require RhoGam as they are Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby or have experienced a stillbirth delivery, making them candidates for RhoGam injection. The mother in answer D is the only one who does not require Rhogam because she is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby, eliminating the need for RhoGam administration.

4. A 6-year-old with cerebral palsy functions at the level of an 18-month-old. Which finding would support that assessment?

• A. She dresses herself
• B. She pulls a toy behind her
• C. She can build a tower of eight blocks
• D. She can copy a horizontal or vertical line

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'She pulls a toy behind her.' This behavior is consistent with the developmental stage of an 18-month-old who enjoys push-pull toys. Dressing oneself usually begins around 3 years old, building a tower of eight blocks at approximately 3 years old, and copying a horizontal or vertical line at about 4 years old. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they represent skills that are typically observed in older children.

5. Why is the intravenous route potentially the most dangerous route of drug administration?

• A. IV infiltration may occur.
• B. it allows for rapid administration of a drug.
• C. rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity
• D. it is the most commonly used route in hospitals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: rapid administration of a drug can lead to toxicity. When a drug is administered intravenously, it has 100% bioavailability, entering the bloodstream immediately and increasing the risk of toxicity if not carefully monitored. While IV infiltration (choice A) can cause tissue damage, it is not typically life-threatening. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of administration is not the primary reason for the danger; it is the immediate and full dose reaching the bloodstream. Choice D is incorrect as the popularity of the route does not inherently make it more dangerous.

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