Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for a surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment is most crucial during the preoperative period?

• A. Assessment of the client's level of anxiety
• B. Evaluation of the client's exercise tolerance
• C. Identification of peripheral pulses
• D. Assessment of bowel sounds and activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial assessment during the preoperative period for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a sacular abdominal aortic aneurysm is the identification of peripheral pulses. This is essential because during surgery, the aorta will be clamped, potentially affecting blood circulation to the kidneys and lower extremities. Monitoring peripheral pulses helps assess circulation to the lower extremities, ensuring adequate perfusion. While assessing the client's anxiety level (choice A) is important, it is not as critical as monitoring peripheral pulses in this case. Evaluating exercise tolerance (choice B) is not typically recommended preoperatively for this specific condition. Assessing bowel sounds and activity (choice D) is also relevant but takes a lower priority compared to identifying peripheral pulses in this scenario.

2. The nurse notes the patient care assistant looking through the personal items of the client with cancer. Which action should be taken by the registered nurse?

• A. Notify the police department for investigation
• B. Report this behavior to the charge nurse
• C. Monitor the situation and document any suspicious activities
• D. Confront the patient care assistant immediately

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate action for the registered nurse in this scenario is to report the behavior to the charge nurse. This allows for proper investigation and intervention. Inappropriate actions include notifying the police directly without following the chain of command (Choice A), monitoring without immediate action (Choice C), and confronting the assistant without involving a superior (Choice D). By reporting to the charge nurse, the situation is escalated appropriately within the healthcare setting, ensuring the well-being and safety of the client.

3. Which of the following coping mechanisms protects an individual from anxiety?

• A. denial and fantasy
• B. rationalization and suppression
• C. regression and displacement
• D. reaction formation and projection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'denial and fantasy.' Denial involves blocking external events from awareness to avoid anxiety, while fantasy is escaping to a more comfortable, less threatening place. These mechanisms can protect individuals from anxiety by providing temporary relief or distraction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Rationalization and suppression do not directly protect individuals from anxiety. Regression and displacement involve reverting to earlier developmental stages or redirecting emotions to a substitute target, which do not directly shield individuals from anxiety. Reaction formation and projection entail behaving in the opposite way to one's impulses or attributing one's feelings to others respectively, which do not directly protect individuals from anxiety.

4. The physician has ordered sodium warfarin (Coumadin) for the client with thrombophlebitis. The order should be entered to administer the medication at:

• A. 900
• B. 1200
• C. 1700
• D. 2100

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sodium warfarin is typically administered in the late afternoon, around 1700 hours. This timing allows for accurate bleeding times to be drawn in the morning. Administering it at 0900 (choice A) would not align with this schedule and may affect the monitoring of bleeding times. Choice B (1200) is midday, which is not the recommended time for sodium warfarin administration. Choice D (2100) is in the evening, which is also not ideal. Therefore, the correct time for administering sodium warfarin is 1700 (choice C).

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan).
• B. labetalol (Normodyne).
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin).
• D. thiothixene (Navane).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression after being given an opiate drug, the physician is likely to order the administration of naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opiate antagonist that attaches to opiate receptors, blocking or reversing the action of narcotic analgesics. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Labetalol is a beta blocker used for hypertension, neostigmine is an anticholinesterase agent used to treat myasthenia gravis and reverse neuromuscular blockade, and thiothixene is an antipsychotic agent used for psychiatric conditions.

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