Nursing Elites

1. In a disaster situation, the nurse assessing a diabetic client on insulin assesses for all of the following except:

• A. diabetic signs and symptoms.
• B. nutritional status.
• C. bleeding problems.
• D. availability of insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a disaster situation, when assessing a diabetic client on insulin, the nurse should assess for diabetic signs and symptoms to monitor the client's condition, nutritional status to ensure proper dietary management, and availability of insulin to maintain the client's medication regimen. Bleeding problems are not directly related to diabetes or insulin use, making it the exception in this assessment scenario. Therefore, bleeding problems would not be a typical focus of assessment in this context.

2. A nurse working the 7 a.m. to 3 p.m. shift is reviewing the records of the assigned clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client scheduled for hemodialysis at 10 a.m.
• B. A client scheduled for contrast computed tomography (CT) at noon.
• C. A client scheduled for a nuclear scanning procedure at 10 a.m.
• D. A client scheduled for hydrotherapy for the treatment of a burn injury at 10:30 a.m.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the client scheduled for hemodialysis at 10 a.m. This client needs immediate assessment before the procedure, which may take up to 5 hours. The nurse should ensure the client is physically and emotionally prepared, check for fluid overload by assessing weight and lung sounds, review vital signs, and laboratory test results. The other clients described in the options have needs that are not as urgent. The client scheduled for a nuclear scanning procedure at 10 a.m. may require information reinforcement and increased fluid intake before the procedure. The client scheduled for hydrotherapy for the treatment of a burn injury at 10:30 a.m. may need pain medication administered 30 minutes prior to the therapy. The client scheduled for a contrast CT at noon may need procedure information reinforcement and a special contrast preparation just before the procedure.

3. What sign might the nurse observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Coma is a sign that a nurse might observe in a client with a high ammonia level. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by impaired brain function, which can progress to coma. Edema (choice B) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia (choice C) is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and is not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria (choice D) refers to excessive urination and is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

4. Which of the following isoenzymes is elevated in a client who has had a myocardial infarction?

• A. CPK-BB
• B. CPK-MM
• C. CPK-MB
• D. CPK-MI

Correct answer: C

Rationale: CPK-MB is the correct answer as it is elevated in clients who have had a myocardial infarction. CPK-BB is elevated in clients with brain damage, and CPK-MM is elevated in clients with skeletal muscle damage. CPK-MI, mentioned in the rationale, does not exist, making it an incorrect choice.

5. A neighbor telephones the nurse to tell her that her child has erythema infectiosum and asks for information. The nurse knows that another name for the disorder is:

• A. Kawasaki disease
• B. rheumatic disease
• C. lupus erythematosus
• D. fifth disease

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'fifth disease.' Erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease, is a parvovirus flu-like illness that is self-limiting but contagious for two to three weeks. Choice A, Kawasaki disease, is a different condition that involves inflammation of the blood vessels, predominantly affecting children. Choices B and C, rheumatic disease and lupus erythematosus, are also different conditions unrelated to erythema infectiosum.

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