Nursing Elites

1. How does the ANA define the psychiatric nursing role?

• A. a specialized area of nursing practice that employs theories of human behavior as its science and the powerful use of self as its art
• B. assisting the therapist to relieve the symptoms of clients
• C. to solve clients' problems and give them the answers
• D. having a client committed to long-term therapy with the nurse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer aligns with the ANA's definition of the psychiatric nursing role. According to the ANA, psychiatric nursing is a specialized area of nursing practice that incorporates theories of human behavior as its foundational science and utilizes the self as its essential art. This definition emphasizes the importance of understanding human behavior and leveraging therapeutic communication and relationships to provide effective care for individuals with mental health concerns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the ANA-defined role of psychiatric nursing. Psychiatric nurses primarily focus on delivering holistic care, promoting mental health, and supporting individuals with mental health challenges using evidence-based practices and therapeutic interventions.

2. The licensed practical nurse assigned to the postpartum unit is preparing to administer Rhogam to a postpartum client. Which woman is not a candidate for RhoGam?

• A. A gravida IV para 3 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
• B. A gravida I para 1 that is Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby
• C. A gravida II para 0 that is Rh negative admitted after a stillbirth delivery
• D. A gravida IV para 2 that is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The mothers in answers A, B, and C all require RhoGam as they are Rh negative with an Rh-positive baby or have experienced a stillbirth delivery, making them candidates for RhoGam injection. The mother in answer D is the only one who does not require Rhogam because she is Rh negative with an Rh-negative baby, eliminating the need for RhoGam administration.

3. A client receiving preoperative instructions asks questions repeatedly about when to stop eating the night before the procedure. The nurse tries to refocus the client. The nurse notes that the client is frequently startled by noises in the hall. Assessment reveals rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, and elevated blood pressure. The client admits to feeling nervous and having trouble sleeping. Based on the assessment, the nurse documents that the client has:

• A. mild anxiety.
• B. moderate anxiety.
• C. severe anxiety.
• D. a panic attack.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'severe anxiety.' In severe anxiety, a person focuses on small or scattered details and is unable to solve problems. The client's symptoms of rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, feeling nervous, and having trouble sleeping indicate severe anxiety. Mild anxiety enhances the ability to learn and solve problems, while moderate anxiety narrows the perceptual field but allows the client to notice things brought to their attention. During a panic attack, a person is disorganized, hyperactive, or unable to speak or act, which is not the case in this scenario.

4. Which of the following post-operative diets is most appropriate for the client who has had a hemorrhoidectomy?

• A. High-fiber
• B. Low-residue
• C. Bland
• D. Clear-liquid

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear-liquid.' After a hemorrhoidectomy, the client is usually started on a clear-liquid diet to allow the intestines to rest and promote healing. This diet helps prevent straining during bowel movements, which is crucial for recovery. Stool softeners are often included in the plan to avoid constipation. Once the client tolerates the clear liquids well, they can progress to a regular diet. High-fiber diet (choice A) is beneficial in the later stages of recovery to prevent constipation but is not typically the initial post-operative diet. Low-residue diet (choice B) and bland diet (choice C) are not appropriate for this type of surgery as they may not provide the necessary post-operative care and support needed for healing.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with cerebral palsy. The nurse should provide frequent rest periods because:

• A. Grimacing and writhing movements decrease with relaxation and rest.
• B. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes become more active with rest.
• C. Stretch reflexes are increased with rest.
• D. Fine motor movements are improved.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Frequent rest periods help to relax tense muscles and preserve energy in clients with cerebral palsy. This can lead to a decrease in grimacing and writhing movements, as relaxation and rest help to alleviate muscle tension. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they provide inaccurate information. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes do not become more active with rest; stretch reflexes are not increased with rest in cerebral palsy patients, and fine motor movements are not necessarily improved solely by rest.

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