how does the ana define the psychiatric nursing role

NCLEX-PN

PN Nclex Questions 2024

1. How does the ANA define the psychiatric nursing role?

A. a specialized area of nursing practice that employs theories of human behavior as its science and the powerful use of self as its art
B. assisting the therapist to relieve the symptoms of clients
C. to solve clients' problems and give them the answers
D. having a client committed to long-term therapy with the nurse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer aligns with the ANA's definition of the psychiatric nursing role. According to the ANA, psychiatric nursing is a specialized area of nursing practice that incorporates theories of human behavior as its foundational science and utilizes the self as its essential art. This definition emphasizes the importance of understanding human behavior and leveraging therapeutic communication and relationships to provide effective care for individuals with mental health concerns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the ANA-defined role of psychiatric nursing. Psychiatric nurses primarily focus on delivering holistic care, promoting mental health, and supporting individuals with mental health challenges using evidence-based practices and therapeutic interventions.

2. Using clich�s in therapeutic communication leads the client to:

A. viewing the nurse as less understanding.
B. accepting themselves as human.
C. self-disclosing.
D. feeling discounted.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The use of clich�s in therapeutic communication is commonly construed by the client as the nurse's lack of understanding, involvement, and caring, which can lead the client to feel demeaned and discounted. Choice A is incorrect because clich�s do not make the client view the nurse as less understanding but rather as lacking depth in communication. Choice B is incorrect as clich�s do not directly lead the client to accepting themselves as human. Choice C is incorrect because clich�s usually hinder self-disclosure rather than encourage it.

3. A teenage client is admitted to the hospital because of an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs?

A. lungs
B. liver
C. kidneys
D. adrenal glands

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acetaminophen is extensively metabolized in the liver. An acetaminophen overdose can lead to severe liver damage and even liver failure, which can be life-threatening. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Acetaminophen overdose does not typically cause life-threatening problems in the lungs, kidneys, or adrenal glands. While prolonged acetaminophen use may increase the risk of renal dysfunction, a single overdose primarily affects the liver.

4. The licensed practical nurse is observing a graduate nurse as she assesses the central venous pressure. Which observation would indicate that the graduate needs further teaching?

A. The graduate places the client in a supine position to read the manometer.
B. The graduate turns the stop-cock to the off position from the IV fluid to the client.
C. The graduate instructs the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver during the CVP reading.
D. The graduate notes the level at the top of the meniscus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client should breathe normally during a central venous pressure monitor reading. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice A) is correct if the client can tolerate it. Turning the stop-cock off (Choice B) and noting the level at the top of the meniscus (Choice D) are also correct actions during CVP monitoring. Instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is incorrect as it can artificially alter the CVP reading, indicating a need for further teaching.

5. The home health nurse is planning for the day's visits. Which client should be seen first?

A. The 78-year-old who had a gastrectomy 3 weeks ago with a PEG tube
B. The 5-month-old discharged 1 week ago with pneumonia who is being treated with amoxicillin liquid suspension
C. The 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line
D. The 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority client is the 30-year-old with an exacerbation of multiple sclerosis being treated with cortisone via a centrally placed venous catheter. This client is at the highest risk for complications and requires immediate attention. Choice C, the 50-year-old with MRSA being treated with Vancomycin via a PICC line, is incorrect as Vancomycin administration can be scheduled at specific times and does not indicate an urgent need for a visit. Choices A and B are also incorrect as these clients are more stable compared to the client with multiple sclerosis in need of cortisone therapy.