Nursing Elites

1. A home health nurse is planning for her daily visits. Which client should the home health nurse visit first?

• A. A client with AIDS being treated with Foscarnet
• B. A client with a fractured femur in a long leg cast
• C. A client with laryngeal cancer with a laryngectomy
• D. A client with diabetic ulcers on the left foot

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the client with laryngeal cancer who had a laryngectomy. This client is at risk for airway obstruction due to the surgical procedure, making it a priority visit. Clients with AIDS (choice A), a fractured femur (choice B), and diabetic ulcers (choice D) do not have immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent attention compared to a client with a recent laryngectomy.

2. Which of the following attitudes is essential in a nurse who assists clients during crises?

• A. viewing crisis intervention as the first step in solving bigger problems
• B. wanting to help clients solve all problems identified
• C. taking an active role in guiding the process
• D. feeling that work requires identification with all of a client's problems

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Viewing crisis intervention as the first step in solving bigger problems is essential in a nurse who assists clients during crises. This approach focuses on addressing the immediate crisis first, which can potentially prevent the escalation of bigger problems. Wanting to help clients solve all problems identified (Choice B) may not be feasible or necessary during a crisis situation where immediate intervention is crucial. Taking an active role in guiding the process (Choice C) is important, but the primary focus should be on crisis intervention. Feeling that work requires identification with all of a client's problems (Choice D) may lead to a lack of focus on the immediate crisis at hand.

3. The licensed practical nurse is working with a registered nurse and a patient care assistant. Which of the following clients should be cared for by the registered nurse?

• A. A client 2 days post-appendectomy
• B. A client 1 week post-thyroidectomy
• C. A client 3 days post-splenectomy
• D. A client 2 days post-thoracotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a client 2 days post-thoracotomy because this client is the most critical and requires the expertise of a registered nurse. Clients A and B are stable and ready for discharge after their respective surgeries (appendectomy and thyroidectomy). Client C, who is 3 days post-splenectomy, is also stable enough to be cared for by a licensed practical nurse as they are in a stable condition and do not have immediate critical needs. Therefore, the registered nurse should care for the client 2 days post-thoracotomy due to the critical nature of the procedure and the immediate postoperative care required.

4. The doctor orders 2% nitroglycerin ointment in a 1-inch dose every 12 hours. Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment includes:

• A. Rotating application sites
• B. Limiting applications to the chest
• C. Rubbing it into the skin
• D. Covering it with a thin paper dressing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proper application of nitroglycerin ointment involves rotating application sites to prevent skin irritation. It should be applied to the back and upper arms, not restricted to the chest, making option B incorrect. Rubbing it into the skin, as indicated in option C, is not recommended for nitroglycerin ointment as it can lead to faster absorption and potential side effects. The correct way is to cover it with a thin paper dressing, not gauze as mentioned in option D, to ensure proper absorption and prevent the medication from evaporating too quickly.

5. Six hours after birth, the infant is found to have an area of swelling over the right parietal area that does not cross the suture line. The nurse should chart this finding as:

• A. A cephalohematoma
• B. Molding
• C. Subdural hematoma
• D. Caput succedaneum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, a cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is an area of bleeding outside the cranium but beneath the periosteum, typically not crossing the suture line. Answer B, molding, is the overlapping of the bones of the cranium and does not involve bleeding, making it an incorrect choice. Answer C, a subdural hematoma, involves intracranial bleeding and is typically diagnosed through imaging studies like a CAT scan or x-ray. Answer D, caput succedaneum, is characterized by edema that crosses the suture line, unlike the described swelling in this case.

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