diagnostic genetic counseling for procedures such as amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allows clients to make all of the following choices e
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1. In the context of diagnostic genetic counseling, which of the following choices is typically not made by clients?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diagnostic genetic counseling, clients may face difficult decisions based on test results. Terminating the pregnancy is a choice some clients may consider if severe abnormalities are detected. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs involves getting ready to care for a child who may require extra attention and support. Accessing support services before the birth can help clients connect with resources and professionals for assistance during and after the pregnancy. Completing the grieving process before birth is not typically a choice made in the context of genetic counseling. The grieving process often starts or continues after distressing results and can extend beyond the birth of the child. Therefore, the correct answer is completing the grieving process before the birth.

2. Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Scurvy is indeed associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C. Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakness, anemia, gum disease, and skin hemorrhages. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency, marasmus is due to severe malnutrition leading to wasting, and kwashiorkor is a form of severe protein-energy malnutrition.

3. When testing the function of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, which parameter does a nurse check to determine their function?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eye movements. When assessing the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, evaluating eye movements is crucial. This assessment includes checking the pupils for size, regularity, equality, light reactions, accommodation, and extraocular movements in various gaze positions. Tongue symmetry is primarily used to evaluate cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve) function. Facial symmetry is a key indicator of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function. The corneal reflex assesses sensory afferents in cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) and motor efferents in cranial nerve VII (facial nerve).

4. A pregnant client asks a nurse about the use of noninvasive acupressure as a complementary alternative therapy to relieve nausea. The nurse provides which instruction?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Devices that apply pressure alone are available over the counter.' Acupressure over the Neiguan acupuncture point can be used as a complementary alternative therapy to relieve nausea during pregnancy. It can be performed with devices that apply pressure alone, which are available over the counter. Acupressure devices that apply electrical impulses over this point require a prescription. It is not safe to try any type of complementary alternative therapy during pregnancy, as some may be harmful to the mother and fetus. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client about the availability of over-the-counter pressure devices for acupressure, which are generally safe to use.

5. When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.

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