diagnostic genetic counseling for procedures such as amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling allows clients to make all of the following choices e
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1. In the context of diagnostic genetic counseling, which of the following choices is typically not made by clients?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diagnostic genetic counseling, clients may face difficult decisions based on test results. Terminating the pregnancy is a choice some clients may consider if severe abnormalities are detected. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs involves getting ready to care for a child who may require extra attention and support. Accessing support services before the birth can help clients connect with resources and professionals for assistance during and after the pregnancy. Completing the grieving process before birth is not typically a choice made in the context of genetic counseling. The grieving process often starts or continues after distressing results and can extend beyond the birth of the child. Therefore, the correct answer is completing the grieving process before the birth.

2. A nurse assisting with data collection is testing the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII). Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To test the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII), the nurse should have the client close their eyes and indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse moves the watch closer to the client's ear. This action assesses the client's ability to perceive auditory stimuli, as the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve is responsible for hearing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows to check for symmetry is a method to test the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). Asking the client to clench their teeth and palpating the masseter muscles tests the motor component of the trigeminal nerve. Having the client identify light and sharp touch on both sides of the face is a way to test the sensory component of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V).

3. A client with Kawasaki disease has bilateral congestion of the conjunctivae, dry cracked lips, a strawberry tongue, and edema of the hands and feet followed by desquamation of fingers and toes. Which of the following nursing measures is most appropriate to meet the expected outcome of positive body image?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client and their family about the progression of Kawasaki disease is crucial for promoting a positive body image. By explaining when symptoms are expected to improve and resolve, the client and family can better understand that there will be no permanent disruption in physical appearance that could negatively impact body image. Administering immune globulin intravenously is a treatment for Kawasaki disease but does not directly address body image concerns. Assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours is important for monitoring the disease but does not directly address body image concerns. Assessing heart sounds and rhythm is essential for evaluating cardiac effects of Kawasaki disease but is not the most direct measure for promoting a positive body image.

4. When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, what technique should a nurse use?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When preparing to listen to a client's breath sounds, a nurse should ask the client to sit and lean forward slightly, with the arms resting comfortably across the lap. The client should be instructed to breathe through the mouth a little more deeply than usual but to stop if feeling dizzy. The nurse should use the flat diaphragm end-piece of the stethoscope, holding it firmly on the chest wall. By using the diaphragm, the nurse can listen for at least one full respiration in each location, moving from side to side to compare sounds. This technique ensures a systematic and thorough assessment of lung sounds. Choice A is correct as it includes the proper positioning of the client and specifies the use of the diaphragm of the stethoscope. Choice B is incorrect as both lungs should be auscultated systematically, starting from the top and moving down. Choice C is incorrect as deep breaths, not shallow ones, are recommended for an accurate assessment of breath sounds.

5. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.

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