NCLEX-PN
Best NCLEX Next Gen Prep
1. In the context of diagnostic genetic counseling, which of the following choices is typically not made by clients?
- A. Terminating the pregnancy.
- B. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs.
- C. Accessing support services before the birth.
- D. Completing the grieving process before the birth.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In diagnostic genetic counseling, clients may face difficult decisions based on test results. Terminating the pregnancy is a choice some clients may consider if severe abnormalities are detected. Preparing for the birth of a child with special needs involves getting ready to care for a child who may require extra attention and support. Accessing support services before the birth can help clients connect with resources and professionals for assistance during and after the pregnancy. Completing the grieving process before birth is not typically a choice made in the context of genetic counseling. The grieving process often starts or continues after distressing results and can extend beyond the birth of the child. Therefore, the correct answer is completing the grieving process before the birth.
2. The patient is inquiring about the use of a PCA pump for pain management. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for additional education?
- A. "I will continue to report my pain score during assessments."?
- B. "I understand that there is a maximum dose per hour that I can receive regardless of how many times I press the button."?
- C. "I believe this new PCA pump will finally alleviate my back pain."?
- D. "I have more control over when and how much medication I receive."?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is, "I believe this new PCA pump will finally alleviate my back pain."? This statement indicates a need for additional education as it reflects an unrealistic expectation regarding pain management. It is essential for the patient to understand that while a PCA pump can provide effective pain relief, it may not completely eliminate pain. Option A is correct as it demonstrates the patient's understanding of the importance of reporting pain scores for proper pain management. Option B is correct as it shows the patient's awareness of the maximum dose limits to prevent overdose. Option D is correct as it highlights the patient's understanding of the control they have over their medication administration.
3. A nurse demonstrates the procedure for bathing a newborn to a new mother. The next day, the nurse watches as the mother bathes the infant. The nurse determines that the mother is performing the procedure correctly if the mother performs which action?
- A. Uses a cotton-tipped swab to carefully clean inside the infant's nose
- B. Uncovers only the body part being washed
- C. Washes the diaper area first
- D. Washes the infant's chest first
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When bathing a newborn, it is crucial to follow a specific sequence for thorough cleaning and safety. The correct sequence includes starting with the eyes and face, then moving to the external ear, areas behind the ears, neck, hands, arms, legs, and finally the diaper area. Keeping the infant warm is essential, so only the body part being washed should be uncovered. Using a cotton-tipped swab to clean inside the infant's nose is not recommended due to the risk of injury if the infant moves suddenly. Washing the diaper area first is incorrect as it should be done towards the end of the bath to prevent contamination. Washing the infant's chest first is also incorrect as it deviates from the recommended bathing sequence for a newborn.
4. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?
- A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
- B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
- C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
- D. The test results are normal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.
5. When reviewing a client's medical notes to confirm pregnancy, a nurse should look for which finding to determine that pregnancy is confirmed?
- A. Amenorrhea
- B. Thinning of the cervix
- C. Palpable fetal movement
- D. Positive result on a home urine test for pregnancy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To confirm pregnancy, the presence of palpable fetal movement is a positive indicator. Palpable fetal movement is a certain sign of pregnancy, known as a fetal movement felt by the examiner. Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy as it is reported by the woman but is not confirmatory. Thinning of the cervix (Hegar sign) is a probable sign of pregnancy, which is not confirmatory. A positive result on a home urine test for pregnancy is also a probable indicator. However, a positive pregnancy test result can sometimes yield false-positive results due to various factors like medication, recent pregnancy, or errors in reading.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access