HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. An 11-year-old client is admitted to the mental health unit after trying to run away from home and threatening self-harm. The nurse establishes a goal to promote effective coping and plans to ask the client to verbalize three ways to deal with stress. Which activity is best to establish rapport and accomplish this therapeutic goal?
- A. Play a board game with the client and begin talking about stressors
- B. Conduct a formal therapy session
- C. Ask the client to write down their feelings
- D. Have a group discussion about stress management
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Playing a board game with the client and initiating a conversation about stressors is the best choice to establish rapport and achieve the therapeutic goal of helping the client verbalize ways to cope with stress. Board games provide a relaxed and non-threatening environment, allowing the client to feel more comfortable and open up about their stressors. Choice B, conducting a formal therapy session, might be too structured and intimidating for the client, hindering open communication. Choice C, asking the client to write down their feelings, lacks the interactive and engaging aspect that a board game provides. Choice D, having a group discussion about stress management, may not be as effective initially as one-on-one interaction to build trust and rapport with the client.
2. Progressive kyphoscoliosis leading to respiratory distress is evident in a client with muscular dystrophy. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Extremity muscle weakness.
- B. Bilateral eyelid drooping.
- C. Inability to swallow pills.
- D. Evidence of hypoventilation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Evidence of hypoventilation. In a client with muscular dystrophy and progressive kyphoscoliosis, hypoventilation indicates respiratory muscle weakness and can lead to life-threatening respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while extremity muscle weakness, bilateral eyelid drooping, and inability to swallow pills are concerning symptoms in muscular dystrophy, evidence of hypoventilation poses a more immediate threat to the client's respiratory status.
3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
- D. Obtain a sputum culture.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy as prescribed is the initial priority when managing an exacerbation of COPD. In COPD exacerbations, the primary concern is hypoxemia due to impaired gas exchange. Administering oxygen helps to improve oxygenation and prevent further complications. Elevating the head of the bed can aid in breathing comfort but is not the priority over ensuring adequate oxygen supply. Assessing the client's level of consciousness is important but comes after ensuring oxygenation. Obtaining a sputum culture is relevant for identifying pathogens but is not the immediate priority in addressing hypoxemia.
4. A confused, older client with Alzheimer's disease becomes incontinent of urine when attempting to find the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Assist the client to a bedside commode every two hours
- B. Insert an indwelling catheter
- C. Use adult diapers to manage incontinence
- D. Restrict fluids in the evening
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to assist the client to a bedside commode every two hours. This approach, known as scheduled toileting, is essential in managing incontinence in clients with cognitive impairments like Alzheimer's disease. By providing regular assistance to the client to use the commode, the nurse can help maintain continence and reduce accidents. Inserting an indwelling catheter (Choice B) should be avoided if possible to prevent the risk of urinary tract infections. Using adult diapers (Choice C) should be considered a last resort and not the initial intervention. Restricting fluids in the evening (Choice D) is not appropriate as it may lead to dehydration and other complications.
5. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Serum glucose of 500 mg/dL
- B. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL
- C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
- D. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with DKA as it indicates metabolic acidosis, requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. A low serum bicarbonate level is a key indicator of this acid-base imbalance. Elevated serum glucose levels are expected in DKA but are managed through insulin therapy. Serum potassium levels can fluctuate in DKA due to insulin deficiency, but a value of 5.5 mEq/L is not as immediately concerning as metabolic acidosis. Therefore, the most critical finding in this scenario is the low serum bicarbonate level.
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