Nursing Elites

1. An 11-year-old client is admitted to the mental health unit after trying to run away from home and threatening self-harm. The nurse establishes a goal to promote effective coping and plans to ask the client to verbalize three ways to deal with stress. Which activity is best to establish rapport and accomplish this therapeutic goal?

• A. Play a board game with the client and begin talking about stressors
• B. Conduct a formal therapy session
• C. Ask the client to write down their feelings
• D. Have a group discussion about stress management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Playing a board game with the client and initiating a conversation about stressors is the best choice to establish rapport and achieve the therapeutic goal of helping the client verbalize ways to cope with stress. Board games provide a relaxed and non-threatening environment, allowing the client to feel more comfortable and open up about their stressors. Choice B, conducting a formal therapy session, might be too structured and intimidating for the client, hindering open communication. Choice C, asking the client to write down their feelings, lacks the interactive and engaging aspect that a board game provides. Choice D, having a group discussion about stress management, may not be as effective initially as one-on-one interaction to build trust and rapport with the client.

2. A client with newly diagnosed hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. ‘I will reduce my salt intake to help manage my blood pressure.’
• B. ‘I will start exercising regularly to help control my blood pressure.’
• C. ‘I will avoid drinking alcohol to help manage my blood pressure.’
• D. ‘I will limit my caffeine intake to help control my blood pressure.’

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Limiting caffeine intake is a positive lifestyle modification for managing hypertension. The statement indicates that the client understands the importance of reducing caffeine intake. Choices A, B, and C all reflect appropriate lifestyle modifications for managing hypertension, indicating good understanding by the client.

3. A client with liver cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dL
• B. Bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dL
• C. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL
• D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL is elevated and concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis, as it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to cognitive impairment, altered mental status, and even coma. Serum albumin, bilirubin, and prothrombin time are also important markers in liver cirrhosis but are not as directly associated with the risk of hepatic encephalopathy as elevated ammonia levels.

4. A 35-year-old female client has just been admitted to the post-anesthesia recovery unit following a partial thyroidectomy. Which statement reflects the nurse's accurate understanding of the expected outcome for the client following this surgery?

• A. Supplemental hormonal therapy will probably be unnecessary.
• B. The thyroid will regenerate to a normal size within a few years.
• C. The client will be restricted from eating seafood.
• D. The remainder of the thyroid will be removed at a later date.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a partial thyroidectomy, the client may be advised to avoid eating seafood due to its high iodine content, which can affect the thyroid function. Choice A is incorrect because after a partial thyroidectomy, supplemental hormonal therapy may be necessary. Choice B is incorrect as the thyroid does not regenerate after a partial thyroidectomy. Choice D is incorrect; the remaining portion of the thyroid is not typically removed at a later date unless there are specific medical reasons to do so.

5. When assessing a client with left-sided heart failure, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.
• D. Administer morphine as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the initial intervention for a client with left-sided heart failure. This action is crucial in improving oxygen levels and reducing pulmonary congestion. Monitoring urine output is important for assessing renal function in heart failure, but it is not the priority over ensuring adequate oxygenation. Administering loop diuretics helps manage fluid overload but should come after addressing oxygen needs. Morphine may be indicated for pain or anxiety in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

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