HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A 12-year-old boy has a body mass index (BMI) of 28, a systolic pressure, and a glycosylated hemoglobin (HBA1C) of 7.8%. Which selection indicates that his mother understands the management of his diet?
- A. One whole-wheat bagel with cream cheese, two strips of bacon, six ounces of orange juice.
- B. Two eggs with toast and butter, 8 ounces of milk.
- C. Fresh fruit salad with low-fat yogurt.
- D. Pancakes with syrup and sausage links.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Fresh fruit salad with low-fat yogurt is a healthier choice for managing the diet of a 12-year-old boy with a high BMI and elevated HBA1C. This choice provides a good balance of nutrients, fiber, and low-fat content, helping to lower BMI and maintain healthy blood sugar levels. Choices A, B, and D are less ideal as they contain higher levels of refined carbohydrates, saturated fats, and sugars, which can contribute to weight gain and worsen blood sugar control in this scenario.
2. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction
- B. Administer a laxative to stimulate bowel movement
- C. Increase fluid intake to soften stool
- D. Perform a digital rectal examination
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. In this scenario, the client's presentation of frequent small amounts of liquid stool after a period of no bowel movement suggests a possible impaction. By performing a digital examination, the nurse can assess for the presence of a blockage that may be causing the symptoms. Administering a laxative (Choice B) without assessing for impaction can worsen the situation. Increasing fluid intake (Choice C) is generally beneficial for bowel health but may not address the immediate issue of a potential impaction. Performing a digital rectal examination (Choice D) is similar to Choice A but is more focused on assessing the rectum itself rather than checking for an impaction.
3. The nurse plans to administer a scheduled dose of metoprolol (Toprol SR) at 0900 to a client with hypertension. At 0800, the nurse notes that the client's telemetry pattern shows a second-degree heart block with a ventricular rate of 50. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the Toprol immediately and monitor the client until the heart rate increases.
- B. Provide the dose of Toprol as scheduled and assign a UAP to monitor the client's BP q30 minutes.
- C. Give the Toprol as scheduled if the client's systolic blood pressure reading is greater than 180.
- D. Hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with second-degree heart block, beta blockers such as metoprolol (Toprol SR) are contraindicated as they can further decrease the heart rate. Administering metoprolol in this situation can lead to serious complications. The correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the scheduled dose of Toprol and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the telemetry pattern. This ensures patient safety and appropriate management of the cardiac condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering Toprol despite the heart block can worsen the condition and pose a risk to the client's health.
4. A client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation via a triple-lumen suprapubic catheter that was placed during a prostatectomy. Which report by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) requires intervention by the nurse?
- A. Leakage around the catheter insertion site.
- B. Pink-tinged urine in the drainage bag.
- C. Client reports discomfort at the catheter site.
- D. Decreased urine output in the last hour.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Leakage around the catheter insertion site may indicate a problem with the catheter placement or function, requiring immediate intervention. Pink-tinged urine in the drainage bag is expected due to the continuous bladder irrigation. Discomfort at the catheter site is common after the procedure. Decreased urine output in the last hour may be due to the continuous bladder irrigation and doesn't require immediate intervention.
5. A client with urticaria due to environmental allergies is taking diphenhydramine. Which complaint should the nurse identify as a side effect of the OTC medication?
- A. Nausea and indigestion.
- B. Hypersalivation.
- C. Eyelid and facial twitching.
- D. Increased appetite.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea and indigestion. Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and indigestion. This medication can have anticholinergic effects, leading to these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypersalivation, eyelid and facial twitching, and increased appetite are not typically associated with diphenhydramine use.
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