Nursing Elites

1. A client with a nasogastric tube in place following gastric surgery reports nausea. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Irrigate the NG tube with 30 ml of normal saline.
• B. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
• C. Assess the NG tube for patency and reposition if necessary.
• D. Provide sips of water and reassess the client's symptoms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the NG tube for patency and repositioning it if necessary is the most appropriate action to relieve the client's nausea. Nausea in a client with a nasogastric tube can be due to the tube's malposition or blockage. Irrigating the NG tube with normal saline (Choice A) without assessing for patency or repositioning may worsen the situation. Administering an antiemetic (Choice B) can help manage symptoms but does not address the potential issue with the NG tube. Providing sips of water and reassessing symptoms (Choice D) may be contraindicated if there is a problem with the NG tube and could exacerbate the nausea.

2. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.

3. The nurse weighs a 6-month-old infant during a well-baby check-up and determines that the baby's weight has tripled compared to the birth weight of 7 pounds 8 ounces. The mother asks if the baby is gaining enough weight. What response should the nurse offer?

• A. Your baby is gaining weight right on schedule
• B. What food does your baby usually eat in a normal day?
• C. The baby is below the normal percentile for weight gain
• D. What was the baby's weight at the last well-baby check-up?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your baby is gaining weight right on schedule.' Tripling of birth weight by 6 months is a normal growth pattern in infants, indicating appropriate weight gain and development. Choice B is unrelated to the question as it focuses on the baby's diet rather than addressing the weight gain concern. Choice C is incorrect as tripling the birth weight is considered a healthy growth pattern, not below normal percentile. Choice D is irrelevant to the mother's question about the adequacy of weight gain.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.0
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is most concerning in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) as it indicates a high risk of bleeding, requiring immediate intervention. A high INR value suggests that the blood is taking longer to clot, putting the patient at an increased risk of hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) measures how long it takes for blood to clot, but the specific value of 15 seconds is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl indicates mild anemia and does not directly relate to the risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy. White blood cell count assesses immune function and infection risk, but it is not directly related to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

5. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

• A. Serum sodium level
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Serum creatinine level
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure, serum potassium levels should be closely monitored to assess for hyperkalemia, which can worsen heart failure. Monitoring serum sodium levels is not the priority in this case. Serum creatinine level monitoring is more related to kidney function than heart failure. Hemoglobin levels are important but not the primary concern when assessing heart failure exacerbation.

Similar Questions