Nursing Elites

1. A client with a nasogastric tube in place following gastric surgery reports nausea. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Irrigate the NG tube with 30 ml of normal saline.
• B. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
• C. Assess the NG tube for patency and reposition if necessary.
• D. Provide sips of water and reassess the client's symptoms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the NG tube for patency and repositioning it if necessary is the most appropriate action to relieve the client's nausea. Nausea in a client with a nasogastric tube can be due to the tube's malposition or blockage. Irrigating the NG tube with normal saline (Choice A) without assessing for patency or repositioning may worsen the situation. Administering an antiemetic (Choice B) can help manage symptoms but does not address the potential issue with the NG tube. Providing sips of water and reassessing symptoms (Choice D) may be contraindicated if there is a problem with the NG tube and could exacerbate the nausea.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Headache
• D. Elevated hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Increased fatigue.' In a client with CKD receiving erythropoietin therapy, increased fatigue can be a sign of polycythemia, a condition characterized by an elevated red blood cell count. This can lead to increased blood viscosity and raise the risk of thromboembolic events, necessitating immediate intervention. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is a common concern in CKD but does not require immediate intervention in this context. Headache (choice C) may be related to elevated blood pressure but is not the most critical finding requiring immediate attention. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention unless excessively high.

3. When organizing home visits for the day, which older client should the home health nurse plan to visit first?

• A. A woman who takes naproxen (Naprosyn) and reports a recent onset of dark, tarry stools.
• B. A man who receives weekly injections of epoetin (Procrit) for a low serum iron level.
• C. A man with emphysema who smokes and is complaining of white patches in his mouth.
• D. A frail woman with heart failure who reported a 2-pound weight gain in the last week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Dark, tarry stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Visiting this client first is crucial for prompt assessment and intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent attention compared to the potential emergency indicated by dark, tarry stools.

4. An adult male who lives alone is brought to the Emergency Department by his daughter. He is unresponsive, with minimal respiratory effort, and his pupils are fixed and dilated. At the daughter's request, the client is intubated and mechanically ventilated. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Offer to notify the client's minister of his condition.
• B. Determine if the client has an executed living will.
• C. Provide the family with information about palliative care.
• D. Explore the possibility of organ donation with the family.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention in this scenario is to determine if the client has an executed living will. A living will provides guidance on the client's preferences for medical care in situations where they cannot communicate. This information is crucial in guiding the care team on how to proceed with treatment. Options A, C, and D, though important in certain circumstances, are not the highest priority in this situation where immediate decisions regarding the client's care need to be made.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with right-sided heart failure. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Jugular venous distention
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Elevated liver enzymes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with right-sided heart failure, crackles in the lungs are the most concerning finding as they indicate pulmonary congestion, which requires immediate intervention. Crackles suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to impaired gas exchange and potential respiratory distress. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) and peripheral edema (Choice B) are common findings in right-sided heart failure but do not indicate acute deterioration requiring immediate intervention. Elevated liver enzymes (Choice D) may be seen in chronic heart failure but do not warrant immediate action compared to the urgent need to address pulmonary congestion indicated by crackles in the lungs.

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