HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. The nurse is preparing a community education program on osteoporosis. Which instruction is helpful in preventing bone loss and promoting bone formation?
- A. Recommend weight-bearing physical activity.
- B. Encourage a diet high in dairy products.
- C. Suggest vitamin D supplementation.
- D. Advise avoiding caffeine and alcohol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recommend weight-bearing physical activity. Weight-bearing exercises are effective in maintaining bone density and preventing osteoporosis by promoting bone formation. Encouraging a diet high in dairy products (choice B) can provide calcium, but it's not as directly related to bone formation as physical activity. While vitamin D supplementation (choice C) is important for calcium absorption and bone health, it is not directly involved in promoting bone formation. Advising to avoid caffeine and alcohol (choice D) can be beneficial for bone health, but it is not as directly related to promoting bone formation as weight-bearing physical activity.
2. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. The nurse notices the client has more energy and is giving her belongings away. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Support the client by praising her progress.
- B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself.
- C. Reassure the client about the effectiveness of antidepressant drugs.
- D. Advise the client to keep her belongings for discharge.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention is to ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself because increased energy and giving away belongings can be signs of suicidal ideation. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential risk of self-harm. Choice C is incorrect because reassurance about medication effectiveness may not be appropriate in this situation. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the client's current behavior without addressing the underlying concern of potential self-harm.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which laboratory value is most concerning?
- A. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
- B. Serum glucose of 200 mg/dl
- C. Serum pH of 7.30
- D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS), a serum pH of 7.30 is the most concerning value as it indicates acidosis, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not the most concerning in this scenario. A low serum potassium level (Choice A) may be expected due to cellular shift in hyperglycemia, a serum glucose level of 200 mg/dl (Choice B) is not as concerning compared to the extremely high initial glucose level, and a serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L (Choice D) is within the normal range and not the immediate priority.
4. A client with hyperthyroidism is admitted to the postoperative unit after subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the client's serum laboratory values requires intervention by the nurse?
- A. Total calcium 5.0 mg/dL.
- B. Serum sodium 140 mEq/L.
- C. Serum potassium 4.0 mEq/L.
- D. Serum glucose 90 mg/dL.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A calcium level of 5.0 mg/dL is critically low and could indicate hypoparathyroidism, a possible complication after thyroidectomy. Low calcium levels can lead to tetany, seizures, and cardiac dysrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D fall within the normal range and do not require immediate intervention in this scenario.
5. While a child is hospitalized with acute glomerulonephritis, the parents ask why blood pressure readings are taken so often. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
- A. Elevated blood pressure must be anticipated and identified quickly
- B. Frequent monitoring helps ensure the medication is effective
- C. It is standard protocol for all hospitalized children
- D. We need to monitor for any potential kidney damage
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Elevated blood pressure must be anticipated and identified quickly.' Acute glomerulonephritis can lead to significant hypertension, making it crucial to monitor blood pressure frequently to promptly identify any elevation. Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring can help assess medication effectiveness, the primary reason for frequent blood pressure checks in this case is to detect elevated blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as not all hospitalized children require such frequent blood pressure monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as the primary reason for monitoring blood pressure is to detect hypertension, rather than solely focusing on potential kidney damage.
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