Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing a community education program on osteoporosis. Which instruction is helpful in preventing bone loss and promoting bone formation?

• A. Recommend weight-bearing physical activity.
• B. Encourage a diet high in dairy products.
• C. Suggest vitamin D supplementation.
• D. Advise avoiding caffeine and alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recommend weight-bearing physical activity. Weight-bearing exercises are effective in maintaining bone density and preventing osteoporosis by promoting bone formation. Encouraging a diet high in dairy products (choice B) can provide calcium, but it's not as directly related to bone formation as physical activity. While vitamin D supplementation (choice C) is important for calcium absorption and bone health, it is not directly involved in promoting bone formation. Advising to avoid caffeine and alcohol (choice D) can be beneficial for bone health, but it is not as directly related to promoting bone formation as weight-bearing physical activity.

2. A mother brings her 6-year-old child, who has just stepped on a rusty nail, to the pediatrician's office. Upon inspection, the nurse notes that the nail went through the shoe and pierced the bottom of the child's foot. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment
• B. Provide teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours.
• C. Have the mother check the child's temperature every 4 hours for the next 24 hours
• D. Transfer the child to the emergency department to receive a gamma globulin injection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to implement is to cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment to prevent infection. In cases of puncture wounds like stepping on a rusty nail, the immediate concern is to reduce the risk of infection. Providing teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours is important as well, but it should come after the wound is cleansed. Checking the child's temperature and transferring to the emergency department for a gamma globulin injection are not the immediate priorities in this scenario.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.5
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Headache
• D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and can signal respiratory failure in a client with COPD. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further respiratory compromise. Oxygen saturation of 90% indicates some oxygenation impairment but may not necessitate immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but does not indicate immediate respiratory distress. Inspiratory crackles may be present in pneumonia but do not require immediate intervention compared to the increased work of breathing indicated by the use of accessory muscles.

5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate.
• B. Administer intravenous insulin and glucose.
• C. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
• D. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous insulin and glucose. In the presence of hyperkalemia, the priority intervention is to shift potassium back into the cells to lower serum levels. Insulin, in combination with glucose, helps drive potassium intracellularly. Administering calcium gluconate (choice A) is used to stabilize myocardial cell membranes but does not address the underlying cause of hyperkalemia. Administering sodium bicarbonate (choice C) is not the initial treatment for hyperkalemia. Loop diuretics (choice D) may be used later to enhance potassium excretion but are not the primary intervention for acute hyperkalemia.

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