a client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200110 mmhg which intervention should the nurse implement first
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/110 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample. In a client with severe hypertension, it is essential to assess for metabolic or respiratory acidosis which can be done through an ABG sample. Administering antihypertensive medication without assessing the acid-base status of the client can lead to potential complications. Monitoring urine output and administering oxygen therapy are important interventions but are not the priority in this situation where the focus should be on assessing acidosis.

2. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Troponin level. Troponin levels should be closely monitored in a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction to assess for ongoing myocardial injury. Troponin is a specific marker for myocardial damage. Monitoring white blood cell count (choice A) is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Serum creatinine (choice B) is more indicative of renal function rather than cardiac status. Hemoglobin level (choice D) is important but does not directly reflect ongoing myocardial injury.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.

4. Following a lumbar puncture, a client voices several complaints. What complaint indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing a complication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A post-lumbar puncture headache, ranging from mild to severe, may occur as a result of leakage of cerebrospinal fluid at the puncture site. This complication is usually managed by bed rest, analgesics, and hydration. Choices A, B, and C do not directly indicate complications associated with a lumbar puncture. Pain in the lower back when moving legs, a sore throat when swallowing, and nausea with a feeling of vomiting are not typical complications of lumbar puncture.

5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 85% is significantly low for a client with COPD and indicates hypoxemia, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, the body's ability to oxygenate adequately is already compromised, so a saturation of 85% is particularly concerning. A barrel-shaped chest and use of accessory muscles are common findings in COPD due to chronic air trapping and increased work of breathing. While a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute is elevated, a low oxygen saturation is a more critical finding that necessitates prompt attention.

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