Nursing Elites

1. A primary belief of psychiatric mental health nursing is:

• A. Most people have the potential to change and grow.
• B. Every person is worthy of dignity and respect.
• C. Human needs are individual to each person.
• D. Some behaviors have no meaning and cannot be understood.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that every person is worthy of dignity and respect. This is a fundamental principle in psychiatric mental health nursing, emphasizing the importance of treating individuals with dignity and respect regardless of their condition. This belief forms the basis of establishing a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Choice A is a positive belief, but the primary focus in psychiatric mental health nursing is on respecting the worth and dignity of each individual. Choice C is related to understanding individual human needs but does not encompass the core value of dignity and respect. Choice D is incorrect as psychiatric nursing emphasizes the importance of interpreting and understanding all behaviors as meaningful expressions of the client's experience.

2. A 60-year-old widower is hospitalized after complaining of difficulty sleeping, extreme apprehension, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. "You have nothing to worry about. You are in a safe place. Try to relax."?
• B. "Has anything happened recently or in the past that might have triggered these feelings?"?
• C. "We have given you a medication that helps to decrease feelings of anxiety."?
• D. "Take some deep breaths and try to calm down."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it shows empathy, acknowledges the patient's feelings, and opens the door for discussion about potential triggers for anxiety. This approach helps the patient explore the root cause of his anxiety and provides an opportunity for therapeutic communication. Choice A dismisses the patient's feelings and offers false reassurance, which may not address the underlying issue. Choices C and D do not encourage the patient to express his emotions or delve into the reasons behind his anxiety, hindering the therapeutic process.

3. Which of the following statements by a client with spinal cord injury indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse regarding bowel management?

• A. "I should avoid eating foods that produce gas."?
• B. "I should drink more fluids like water and non-caffeinated fruit juices."?
• C. "I should set a regular schedule for bowel movements."?
• D. "I should sit in an upright position for bowel movements."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The corrected statement indicates the need for further teaching because it suggests consuming fluids like fruit juices, which can include caffeinated options that may stimulate fluid loss through increased urination. It is more appropriate to emphasize the consumption of fluids like water and non-caffeinated fruit juices for proper hydration. Choices A, C, and D demonstrate a correct understanding of bowel management by focusing on dietary considerations, establishing a regular bowel movement schedule, and using proper positioning during bowel movements. Option B is incorrect as it may lead to increased fluid loss due to caffeine content in some fruit juices.

4. While the client is receiving quinidine, the nurse should monitor the ECG for:

• A. Peaked P wave
• B. Elevated ST segment
• C. Inverted T wave
• D. Prolonged QT interval

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine can cause widened Q-T intervals and heart block, leading to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG. Other signs of myocardial toxicity associated with quinidine include notched P waves and widened QRS complexes. Common side effects of quinidine include diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, while less common effects may include tinnitus, vertigo, headache, visual disturbances, and confusion. Monitoring for a prolonged QT interval is crucial due to the potential risk of serious arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with the use of quinidine and are therefore incorrect in this context.

5. Fat emulsions are frequently administered as a part of total parenteral nutrition. Which statement is true regarding fat emulsions?

• A. They have a high energy-to-fluid-volume ratio.
• B. Even though hypertonic, they are well tolerated.
• C. They are a basic solution due to the addition of sodium hydroxide (NaOH).
• D. The pH is alkaline, making them compatible with most medications.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is that fat emulsions have a high energy-to-fluid-volume ratio. Fat emulsions are formulated in 10%, 20%, and 30% solutions and supply 1.1, 2, and 3 kilocalories, respectively, for each milliliter. In comparison, a milliliter of 5% dextrose only supplies 0.17 kilocalories. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is false because fat emulsions are essentially pH neutral and isotonic, not hypertonic. Choice C is incorrect because fat emulsions are not basic solutions; they are essentially pH neutral. Choice D is incorrect as fat emulsions are not alkaline; they are pH neutral, making them compatible with most medications.

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