Nursing Elites

1. When medications have an additive, synergistic, or antagonistic effect on a tissue, a ________ reaction has occurred.

• A. pharmaceutical
• B. pharmacodynamic
• C. pharmacokinetic
• D. drug incompatibility

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'pharmacodynamic.' Pharmacodynamics pertain to the effect of a drug on receptors, explaining how drugs affect tissues. Pharmaceutical reactions refer to chemical reactions between drugs before administration or absorption, not their effect on tissues. Pharmacokinetic reactions involve how the body affects the drug, not the tissue. Drug incompatibilities are essentially pharmaceutical reactions, not the specific effects on tissues seen in pharmacodynamic reactions.

2. The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his systemic lupus erythematosus. Which statement best explains the reason for taking the prednisone in the morning?

• A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
• B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in the morning.
• C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.
• D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion of corticosteroid.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural release of cortisol, which follows a diurnal pattern with higher levels in the morning. This timing helps regulate the body's inflammatory response and minimizes potential side effects. Answer A is not the primary reason for morning dosing, as adherence concerns can be addressed through other means. Answer B is incorrect since fluid retention is not influenced by the timing of prednisone administration. Answer C is also incorrect as prednisone absorption is not significantly affected by whether it is taken with breakfast or not.

3. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. A history of radiation treatment in the neck region
• B. A history of recent orthopedic surgery
• C. A history of minimal physical activity
• D. A history of the client's food intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.

4. The chemotherapeutic DNA alkylating agents such as nitrogen mustards are effective because they:

• A. cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA.
• B. have few, if any, side effects.
• C. are used to treat multiple types of cancer.
• D. are cell-cycle-specific agents.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Alkylating agents, such as nitrogen mustards, are effective chemotherapeutic agents because they cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA. This cross-linking interferes with DNA replication and transcription, leading to cell death. Choice B is incorrect because alkylating agents have numerous side effects, including alopecia, nausea, vomiting, and myelosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because while nitrogen mustards are used to treat multiple types of cancer like chronic lymphocytic leukemia, non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and breast and ovarian cancer, their effectiveness is primarily due to DNA cross-linkage. Choice D is incorrect because alkylating agents are non-cell-cycle-specific agents, meaning they can act on cells in any phase of the cell cycle, not just on cells that are actively dividing.

5. A client with acute leukemia develops a low white blood cell count. In addition to the institution of isolation, the nurse should:

• A. Request that foods be provided in sealed single-serving packages
• B. Ask the client to wear a mask when visitors are present
• C. Prep IV sites with mild soap and water and alcohol
• D. Provide foods in sealed single-serving packages

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a client with acute leukemia and a low white blood cell count, preventing exposure to food contaminants is crucial due to immune suppression. Providing foods in sealed single-serving packages helps reduce the risk of contamination. Choice B is incorrect as it introduces the potential of infection from visitors. Choice A, suggesting disposable utensils, is not as effective as sealed containers in preventing food contamination. Choice C, using alcohol for prepping IV sites, is less suitable due to its drying effect and potential for skin breakdown, making sealed packages a better option for food safety.

Similar Questions