Nursing Elites

1. The client with cirrhosis of the liver is receiving Lactulose. The nurse is aware that the rationale for the order for Lactulose is:

• A. To lower the blood glucose level
• B. To lower the uric acid level
• C. To lower the ammonia level
• D. To lower the creatinine level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lactulose is administered to the client with cirrhosis to lower ammonia levels, as it works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for elimination in the stool. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Lactulose does not have an effect on blood glucose, uric acid, or creatinine levels. Therefore, the correct answer is to lower the ammonia level.

2. Which laboratory test would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction?

• A. AST
• B. Troponin
• C. CK-MB
• D. Myoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: AST, choice A, would be the least effective in diagnosing a myocardial infarction as it is not specific for this condition. Troponin, CK-MB, and myoglobin (choices B, C, and D) are more specific markers for myocardial infarction. Troponin is considered the gold standard due to its cardiac specificity. CK-MB is also specific to the heart, and its isoenzyme levels elevate post-heart damage. Myoglobin, although elevated in myocardial infarction, is not as specific as troponin and CK-MB and can also increase in conditions like burns and muscle trauma. Therefore, AST is the least effective choice for diagnosing a myocardial infarction.

3. During discharge teaching for a client with diverticulitis on a low-roughage diet, which food should be eliminated from the diet?

• A. Roasted chicken
• B. Noodles
• C. Cooked broccoli
• D. Custard

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client with diverticulitis needs to avoid gas-forming foods that can increase abdominal discomfort. Cooked broccoli is a high-fiber food that can worsen symptoms. Roasted chicken, noodles, and custard are suitable choices for a low-roughage diet as they are less likely to cause gas formation or abdominal discomfort.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Multiple Drug Use. The nurse should plan care based on knowledge that

• A. Multiple drug use is common.
• B. People might use more than one drug to enhance the effect or relieve withdrawal symptoms.
• C. Combining alcohol and barbiturates can be dangerous due to their combined depressant effects.
• D. Assessment and intervention are more complex with multiple drug use due to the synergistic effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with Multiple Drug Use, it is important to understand that individuals may use more than one drug simultaneously or sequentially to enhance the effect of a particular drug or to relieve withdrawal symptoms. This practice is common among substance users. For example, heroin users may also consume alcohol, marijuana, or benzodiazepines. Combining drugs can have various effects, such as intensifying intoxication or alleviating withdrawal symptoms. It is crucial to recognize that multiple drug use can complicate assessment and intervention due to the diverse effects of different substances on the client's health. Option A is incorrect as multiple drug use is indeed common, not uncommon. Option C is incorrect because combining alcohol and barbiturates can be dangerous due to their combined depressant effects. Option D is incorrect because multiple drug use complicates assessment and intervention rather than making them easier, as the effects of different drugs on the client need to be carefully considered.

5. A client receiving preoperative instructions asks questions repeatedly about when to stop eating the night before the procedure. The nurse tries to refocus the client. The nurse notes that the client is frequently startled by noises in the hall. Assessment reveals rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, and elevated blood pressure. The client admits to feeling nervous and having trouble sleeping. Based on the assessment, the nurse documents that the client has:

• A. mild anxiety.
• B. moderate anxiety.
• C. severe anxiety.
• D. a panic attack.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'severe anxiety.' In severe anxiety, a person focuses on small or scattered details and is unable to solve problems. The client's symptoms of rapid speech, trembling hands, tachypnea, tachycardia, elevated blood pressure, feeling nervous, and having trouble sleeping indicate severe anxiety. Mild anxiety enhances the ability to learn and solve problems, while moderate anxiety narrows the perceptual field but allows the client to notice things brought to their attention. During a panic attack, a person is disorganized, hyperactive, or unable to speak or act, which is not the case in this scenario.

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